Posts by Vidqun

12

Another problem with Daniel

by kepler in

i know, if i got a name associated with anything beside an early 17th century astronomer, it's from picking apart the book of daniel.

much of fundamentalist & apocalyptic thought (sic) arises from explanations of this book's passages and i protest.

we could review other points, but let me note the following discrepancy: the end of chapter 1 and the beginning of chapter 9.. chapter 1 begins with the 3rd year of jehoiakim's reign with a nebuchadnezzar raid.

Vidqun

Kepler, here's a few thoughts from Dictionaries and Commentaries. Firstly, Dan. 1:21 uses hyh "to be," which could mean "remain" or "continue." Secondly, a lot has been written about Darius the Mede. We know for a fact, Cyrus did not take up kingship immediately, for he was involved with military campaigns in Europe. The name Darius could be a title, referring to the governor Gobrayas. It would make sense that Cyrus would reward the Medes for their loyalty by appointing one of them as governor of Babylon while he was away. Thirdly, according to the Babylonian Chronicles, Daniel and friends were deported 605 BCE, the same year that Nebuchadnezzar was officially made king. This was the first of five deportations and three sieges of Jerusalem.

hyh, to be.

2. abide, remain, continue )with word of place or time) Ex 24:18 and Moses remainded in the mount forty days, etc., so 34:28 (both JE), Ju 17:4, 17:12, 1 S 6:1, 1 K 11:20, 2 K 11:3 = 2 Ch 22:12 +; also Lv 22:27, 25:28 )both H(, etc.; sq. `ad temp. remain until Dt 22:2, 1 K 11:40, 2 K 15:5, 2 Ch 5:9, 26:21, Dn 1:21 etc. BDB.

to remain, live (MHb.2 bBaba bathra 15a) Jr 13 Ru 12 Da 121 (Montgomery 139). HALOT.

21. the first year of King Cyrus. The year 538 b.c. The period of Daniel’s activity in Babylon is considerable (from 606 to 538) but not absolutely impossible. The author was probably not concerned here with the fact that this period amounts to almost seventy years, the length of time, as foretold by Jeremiah, for the Babylonian exile, that Daniel 9 will be concerned with. For a more likely reason why this chronological remark is made here, see Comment.

Comment

The first chapter of the book serves primarily as an introduction; it sets the scene for the other stories and the visions (chs. 7–12) that make up the rest of the book. The author here brings together various strands that appear as separate units in the other chapters of the book.

Therefore, the author of the first chapter summarizes Daniel’s career at the imperial court by saying that he was there from the reign of Nebuchadnezzar to the reign of Cyrus (1:21). [It should be recalled that “the first year of King Cyrus” (1:21), or 538 b.c., is not the end of Daniel’s career but simply the end of his service in the Babylonian court. Daniel experiences his final vision “in the third year of King Cyrus” (10:1), i.e. in 536 b.c. Cf. Comment: Detailed on 10:1.][1]

21. ‘And Daniel continued [when and how he was—colloquial Eng., ‘remained on’] until the first year of King Cyrus.’ The implication is that he was vouchsafed the joy of the release under Cyrus, and possibly that he like other faithful Jews returned home upon that glorious event. Such a return was understood by one form of Midrashic tradition, s. Hamburger, RE 1, 225. The contradiction with 10:l, acc. to which Dan. had a vision in Cyrus’ 3d year, in the Far Orient, is removed by the critical distinction of chapters 1–6 and 7–12 as distinct books; s. §21, a. This removes the arguments made by Marti (comm.), Jahn (comm.), Charles (comm.) against the originality of the verse. The editor of the whole book, or composer of chapters 7–12, did not observe the clash between the dates (recognized however by OG which reads ‘first year’ at 10:1). To overcome the contradiction and for the interpretation of the vb. ‘continued’ various exegetical expedients have been devised: he remained in honor, Aben Ezra (comm.) or, in the king’s gate, Hitzig (comm.); or, in prophecy, Stuart (comm.); or, in Babylon, so Jer. at 6:8, C. B. Michaelis (comm.) holding that he was then removed or exiled to Media. The Heb. vb. hyh ‘to be,’ in the sense as translated here, ‘continued,’ is fully corroborated, as noted by Hävernick (comm.) of Luther’s German Version, Moffatt,‘lived’ has the implication that Daniel died thereupon.

21. wyhy] Despite the objection of comm., this use of hyh, ‘remained, continued,’ is found elsewhere. The present phrase is exactly duplicated in Jer. 1:3; cf. Ruth 1:2 sm wyhyw, ‘they remained there.’ Cf. the translation-Greek of Test. Joseph, 11:8, ‘we were with him three months’; and with Bertholdt (comm.) the use of ἐσμέν = ζῶμεν, Acts 17:28, while Ehrlich cft. the Talmud use of hyh = ‘live,’ e.g., Baba b. 15a. The pesher frequently translate μένειν by hw’, e.g., Jn. 1:33, 40bis, 2:12.—`d] Geier notes that this prep. does not exclude the remoter future, cft. Ps. 110:1, 112:8. —kwrs] Also mss krs and so Ezr. 1:1 f.[2]

I prefer the translation of Dan. 1:21 by John J. Collins, “Daniel continued [at court] until the first year of King Cyrus.”

Comm.

“No special importance is attached here to the first year of Cyrus, beyond the fact that it extends Daniel’s career into the Persian era.”

“The Book of Daniel does not say what happened to Daniel after the first year of Cyrus. Josephus has him finish his career at Susa (Ant. 10.11.7 §§269-272). In later times there was a tradition that he was buried in Susa and that his grave was marked with a mausoleum.”[3]

[1] Hartman, L. F., & Di Lella, A. A. (2008). The Book of Daniel: a new translation with notes and commentary on chapters 1-9 (Vol. 23, pp. 131, 132). New Haven; London: Yale University Press.

[2] Montgomery, J. A. (1927). A critical and exegetical commentary on the book of Daniel (p. 137-139). New York: Charles Scribner’s Sons.

[3] J. J. Collins, A Commentary on the Book of Daniel – Hermeneia-series, pp. 129, 145.

11

Is there actually a valid Translation of the Bible ?

by Phizzy in

i saw a vid on-line awhile ago, i cannot remember the title so can't find it, but the guy was some sort of expert in the languages of the bible, and he made a very good case that there has never been a proper translation of the bible.. what he was saying was that all translators fall into the same trap of an overly slavish use of the etymology of words rather than how language was actually used at the time of writing.. he said that what was needed were scholars who were familiar with secular contemporaneous writings, and knew how language was used at the time.. this looks like a very interesting argument.. any thoughts ?

?.

Vidqun

TTWSYF, yes theoretically it should be like that. But remember, Hebrew existed for nearly 2000 years before it died off. During that period it had a developmental phase (time of the patriarchs, Moses), stabilization phase (time of the judges), bloom phase (David and Solomon), split (north vs. south), deterioration phase, (Babylonian exile), etc.

Bible narratives have been taken from all these phases. Changes in the language would have occurred as it was influenced by the languages of surrounding nations, e.g., Ugaritic (in the time of David and Solomon), and Aramaic (Laban was a Syrian, also Aramaic would transplant Hebrew after the Babylonian exile).

Some of the above changes are evident in the development of aspect/tense of the language. Early Hebrew concentrated on aspect (state of the verb), whereas later Hebrew leaned towards tense (past, present, future).

Another problem with Biblical Hebrew is its limited literature corpus, which consists of the Bible, inscriptions, the Cairo Genizah, and a few DSS MSS. That is not nearly enough to trace its development with any degree of accuracy or certainty, thus the educated guess work by scholars. They have done exceptionally well in working it out, but there are many gaps.

11

Is there actually a valid Translation of the Bible ?

by Phizzy in

i saw a vid on-line awhile ago, i cannot remember the title so can't find it, but the guy was some sort of expert in the languages of the bible, and he made a very good case that there has never been a proper translation of the bible.. what he was saying was that all translators fall into the same trap of an overly slavish use of the etymology of words rather than how language was actually used at the time of writing.. he said that what was needed were scholars who were familiar with secular contemporaneous writings, and knew how language was used at the time.. this looks like a very interesting argument.. any thoughts ?

?.

Vidqun

Phizzy, problem is Biblical Hebrew is a dead language. Nobody knows how it was used by 1) the man in the street, 2) religious leaders, and 3) political leaders. From what era does a certain portion of the Bible come from? From what era does the recension of that portion date? E. g. the two Isaiah Scrolls from the DSS, one is close to the MT, the other is a vulgar version of the day. The closest scholars have come to language use of a specific era is graffiti, monument inscriptions and clay tablets (business and government archives). But because these are insufficient to establish language use, a lot of "educated" guess work is involved. Wordstudies, as is done by the editors of Theological Dictionaries of the Old and New Testament, are valuable in that they establish the different meanings of words over long periods of time. On the other hand, the translators of the different versions have been trained in seminaries and colleges of different denominations (e.g. Catholic and Protestant), which would also influence their translating technique. I think the Greek koine of the NT is in a slightly better position. Archeaologists have unearthed a lot of correspondence from the time, buried in rubbish dumps under the sand in Egypt, e.g. Rylands and Bodmer papyri, so they have a better idea of how the language was used in the first, second and third century CE.

24

Why JWs record and report time?

by ThinkerBelle in

okay, so yes, i'm a born-in, but this point has always baffled me (and i guess i never bothered to research or ask).

what is the purpose of counting time in service?

when was it started and why?

Vidqun

A long time ago I looked it up for it bothered me. JWs reason that the first century Christians kept records. For example, three thousand were baptized (Acts 2:41). At that stage, the answer satisfied me because I trusted them and did not look for ulterior motives or hidden agendas.

Now I see it in a different light. Firstly, if you look carefully in Acts, you will notice they kept tally, but not accurately. Acts 2:41 NW says "about three thousand priests were baptized." So that was an estimate. Secondly, it concerns those who were baptized, and had nothing to do with reporting of time.

Conclusion: As was spelt out above, JWs use it as a gauge to measure spirituality. Who is spiritually weak? Avoid those. Who is spiritually strong? Appoint those, etc. It is all about control.

82

Intriguing - but Unsubstantiated!

by The Searcher in

according to one source on a western european 'apostate' website, the org's plan is to abandon the name "jehovah's witnesses" in the future, and replace it with "worshippers of jehovah.".

http://www.bruderinfo-aktuell.de/index.php/fixnews/#comment-4313 .

the gist of the account appears to be a repeat of rutherford's re-branding and debunking of old predictions made by the previous shower of fakers.

Vidqun

Yes, a name change would make sense. According to JW Theology, strictly speaking it is only the anointed that should be called Jehovah's Witnesses. According to them, fleshly Israel has been replaced by the "Israel of God." The other sheep are not part of this Israel. They are merely companions of those belonging to the little flock.

22

Similarities between the Governing Body and an abusive spouse

by Zoos in

i was looking at a list of methods used by abusive spouses to manipulate and control their "domain" and was struck by how similar the mentality is to the governing body's approach to the flock.

obviously not everything on the list applies as there is no sexual component in the congregation and there is no physical contact, but the similarities were shocking.. http://www.helpguide.org/articles/abuse/domestic-violence-and-abuse.htm.

abusers use a variety of tactics to manipulate you and exert their power:.

Vidqun

Well Mad Irishman, I think you are partly right. It's not right comparing the GB to abusive husbands, wife beaters, and the like. I think we are demeaning these by comparing them to the GB. The GB and their henchmen are much lower than that. By giving pedophiles and predators the benefit of the doubt, and by victimizing the young with their policies, the members of the GB are rock bottom. Shark feces come to mind. If you have followed the Australian RC, you will know what I am talking about.

22

Similarities between the Governing Body and an abusive spouse

by Zoos in

i was looking at a list of methods used by abusive spouses to manipulate and control their "domain" and was struck by how similar the mentality is to the governing body's approach to the flock.

obviously not everything on the list applies as there is no sexual component in the congregation and there is no physical contact, but the similarities were shocking.. http://www.helpguide.org/articles/abuse/domestic-violence-and-abuse.htm.

abusers use a variety of tactics to manipulate you and exert their power:.

Vidqun

Zoos, this reminds me of Mt. 24:45-51. The first part [45-47] JWs like. The second part [48-51] they ignore, cognitive dissonance at its best.

45 Who really is the faithful and discreet slave whom his master appointed over his domestics, to give them their food at the proper time?

46 Happy is that slave if his master on arriving finds him doing so.

47 Truly I say to YOU, He will appoint him over all his belongings.

48 But if ever that evil slave should say in his heart, My master is delaying,

49 and should start to beat his fellow slaves and should eat and drink with the confirmed drunkards,

50 the master of that slave will come on a day that he does not expect and in an hour that he does not know,

51 and will punish him with the greatest severity and will assign him his part with the hypocrites. There is where [his] weeping and the gnashing of [his] teeth will be.

(Matt. 24:45-51 NWT)

11

I'm looking for the verse that says that shepherds will be like wolves fleecing the fold.

by Tempest in a Teacup in

jw
friends

i remember reading it in a forum member's post, somewhere last year or so.

the poster said she (i think it's a she) quoted the scripture to one elder and told him that it applied to him.

could you please help me with this verse?.

Vidqun

First part is the judgment of the shepherds. If you keep on reading, there's a judgment between fat sheep and lean sheep, as well as goats [20], which is also quite interesting.

11

I'm looking for the verse that says that shepherds will be like wolves fleecing the fold.

by Tempest in a Teacup in

jw
friends

i remember reading it in a forum member's post, somewhere last year or so.

the poster said she (i think it's a she) quoted the scripture to one elder and told him that it applied to him.

could you please help me with this verse?.

Vidqun

Don't know whether this is what you are looking for: Try Ezek. 34:1-11.

29

Why some are religious or not?

by Vidqun in

time article: several years before pope francis became pope of the catholic church in 2013, psychologists began to debunk the idea that being more educated meant a person was less likely to be religious.

instead, a new social psychology theoryone that had little to do with education levelarose.

according to dual process theory, people are either deliberative or intuitive when they make decisions.

Vidqun

Phizzy, interesting observation, I think you've got a point. The article says that education isn't the most important factor, rather the way we think - critical thinking skills. As the researcher said: "what type of critical thinking you're prone to do..." And you're right, it depends on the measure of intuitiveness and the measure of deliberativeness. All of us have both, but not in equal measure.