Leaving:
I think you picked the last WT reference to the idea that the loaf pictures "the Christian Congregation."
Here is the 1956 WT 1/15 p. 49 par. 18 “The Table of Demons” versus “The Table of Jehovah” ***
- 18 His body? Yes; his own body, his whole body, head and all, that he was to give for them. Jesus meant his own body, the body with which he next associates his own blood when speaking of the cup. For thirty-three and a half years that body had held the blood that was to be poured out on the torture stake at Calvary. The life of that fleshly body was its blood. When he came to John to have that body baptized Jesus quoted Psalm 40:6-8 and applied it to himself: “Hence when he comes into the world he says: “‘You did not desire sacrifice and offering [of beasts], but you prepared a body for me. You did not approve of whole burnt offerings and sin offering.” Then I said, “Look! I am come (in the roll of the book it is written about me) to do your will, O God.”’”—Heb. 10:5-7, NW.
(Bolding and underlining mine - Bobcat)
So somewhere between 1954 and 1956 this change in doctrine occurred. Confirming this is a few pages later. The article differentiates 1 Cor 10:17 from the loaf at the Lord's Evening meal (w56 1/15 pp. 55-56 par. 1 “One Body” of Partakers):
- Because there is one loaf, we, although many, are one body, for we are all partaking [eating] of that one loaf.” (1 Cor. 10:17, NW) To which body does Paul here refer by the words “one body”? Not to the personal, fleshly body of Jesus which is symbolized by the loaf of unleavened bread. No, but to the entire congregation of spiritual Israelites of which Jesus Christ is the spiritual Head.
That is interesting that such a basic thing, understood by probably all of churchdom, would be only so recently figured out by the 'enlightened' WT. I guess they were so busy condemning the churches for all their 'Satanic lies' that they didn't have time to get this right.
Oh, I couldn't pass up the language employed in the old understanding:
- . . . To which body was Jesus referring here? To his fleshly body? Hardly, (meaning: you must be stupid if you thought this!) for concerning it we read that not a bone was broken, whereas Jesus broke the loaf. (John 19:36) Rather, he was referring to his spiritual body, the Christian congregation, (yes, its obvious, unless your one of Christendom's hardheads!) which in the Scriptures is termed a body or Christ’s body more than forty-five times. That this is the correct conclusion is apparent from Paul’s words: (I wonder why this isn't the "correct conclusion anymore?) “The loaf which we break, is it not a sharing in the body of the Christ? Because there is one loaf, we, although many, are one body, for we are all partaking of that one loaf.” Clearly the loaf pictures not Jesus’ fleshly body but his body members, the Christian congregation.—1 Cor. 10:16, 17, NW.
Take Care