Doctrine #3 is just as scriptural as the other 4 doctrines. First of all, as you might know, you have to interpret scripture IN LIGHT OF SCRIPTURE.
hooberus, the first scripture you quoted was Heb. 2:9 "that he should taste death for every man". First of all, notice it doesnt use the word "MEN" but "MAN". But dont stop there. Read on to the very next verse. It says "...in bringing MANY SONS UNTO GLORY....." it doesnt say ALL MEN or ALL SONS. This explains Matt. 1:21 "And thou shalt call his name Jesus, for he shall save HIS PEOPLE FROM THEIR SINS."
Once again, i quote John 17:9 "..I pray NOT FOR THE WORLD, BUT FOR THEM WICH THOU HAST GIVEN ME,....." Simply put, to say that Jesus died for all men everywhere is to say he refused to pray for some of them.
Then you quoted John 2:2 "and he is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world." Now who was this letter adressed to? And who was John? He was a Jew, and as you know, jews claimed the title of his ELECT nation, the only ones, who by their bloodline would recieve salvation. So when Jesus told Nicademus in John chapter 3 that God so loved the world, this would include more than just Jews. It would include people from all walks of life. The same is being said here. The world not only denotes alot of folks, but Gentiles as well. Non-Jews.
I believe another way of looking at this particular scripture is this way: Christs shed blood was sufficient enough to cover the world, or all men. But is efficient for Gods elect. Basically, Christs blood will be directly applied to his elect, but was sufficient to cover the entire worlds, should they all repent. But man left to himself will not repent, hence man is responsible for his own sin. But Gods elect will repent in time, because God the holy spirit, quickens them.
Case in point: The Pharisees and Pilate, and Judas, those who crucified Christ. It had to happen. God didnt simply sit around waiting for someone to get together and betray and kill his son. It was foretold in Psalms 41:9 that one of Jesus own friends would betray him hundreds of years before he even came to earth. He used mans wickedness to accomplish his purpose. Are these men responsible since it was ordained that this should happen, and in a sense were pawns, used by God to accomplish his will? You bet they are. God simply left them to themself, and they followed their natural couse of action.....Wickedness. It was already in their heart. And God used it to accomplish his will.
"Jacob have i loved, and Esau have i hated" Another classic example of election. Rom.9:11"For the children being not yet born, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of HIM THAT CALLETH" Jacobs very name means "cheat" or "supplanter" God definately did not chose him based on something likeable in him. Paul would have never posed the question in verse 14 of that same chapter if he thought people would take this lying down. "What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid!! For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom i will have mercy"
All im saying here, is check something out thoroughly, using the whole of scripture before dismissing it as mans doctrine. Mans doctrine almost always glorifies himself. The 5 points of Calvinism give ALL the Glory to God.