illustrates a point I made in a paper I wrote about languages evolving
In modern Greek (I'm better in koine) is there any difference in placing Theos before or after the verb? since modern has a form of an indefinite article.
have you ever wondered why john 1.1 reads somewhat differently in koine and modern greek?
i will briefly address this question for the curious ones.
below you will find three greek readings, one from the nt greek text, followed by two modern greek versions: the nwt-2017 edition, and the other by spyros filos (wikipedia: a revision of the vamvas translation of the bible into the modern vernacular (demotic greek) by spyros (spiros) filos (σπύρος φίλος) was first published in 1994. this translation is used in the greek evangelical church and is also recognized by the orthodox church.
illustrates a point I made in a paper I wrote about languages evolving
In modern Greek (I'm better in koine) is there any difference in placing Theos before or after the verb? since modern has a form of an indefinite article.
natural antecedents (essay) + meanings to certain words.
i posted about 5 months ago a study done by daniel wallace called “greek grammar and the holy spirit” (see: source), which i have cited numerous times since – which focuses heavily on greek antecedents.
ending), and she (fem.
Petr
I love that xD
DO you have any suggestions of what i could add to my paper? since you do actaul scholarship rather than theogocialy motivated BS
natural antecedents (essay) + meanings to certain words.
i posted about 5 months ago a study done by daniel wallace called “greek grammar and the holy spirit” (see: source), which i have cited numerous times since – which focuses heavily on greek antecedents.
ending), and she (fem.
Sea breeze
Must I point out Gods own nation fell into idolatry - your point about spiritism is void
you are entitled to your opinion - however there would be many who disagree
Too say Mr Foster is "Heretical" is exactly the same as me calling any trinitarian "Heretical" its no use to anybody and infact is more a reflection of you than anyone else..
If you actually bother to look at Mr Fosters blog though a witness he does give trinitarian opinions view and says some may be correct, you are judging a book by its cover.
natural antecedents (essay) + meanings to certain words.
i posted about 5 months ago a study done by daniel wallace called “greek grammar and the holy spirit” (see: source), which i have cited numerous times since – which focuses heavily on greek antecedents.
ending), and she (fem.
The nearest antesedent isn't nessacarily the correct one/ ekeinos refers back to paraklete not pneuma
"the son is born of the father by generation, but generation should not be understood in the everyday sense.
the son is derived from the father through pure spiritual generation, through the unlimited sharing of his essence.
so, the birth of the son is an intellectual activity of god.".
are you capable of reading? I asked for scholarly contributions not theologically motivated rubbish..
"the son is born of the father by generation, but generation should not be understood in the everyday sense.
the son is derived from the father through pure spiritual generation, through the unlimited sharing of his essence.
so, the birth of the son is an intellectual activity of god.".
Question for trinitarians: in what sense could the Father be considered "begotten"? If the Logos was begotten, and if this does not make him "less eternal" than the Father, then what is the difference? What event took place that constituted the Logos "begotten," and not the Father?
"the son is born of the father by generation, but generation should not be understood in the everyday sense.
the son is derived from the father through pure spiritual generation, through the unlimited sharing of his essence.
so, the birth of the son is an intellectual activity of god.".
"The Son is born of the Father by generation, but generation should not be understood in the everyday sense. The Son is derived from the Father through pure spiritual generation, through the unlimited sharing of His essence. So, the birth of the Son is an intellectual activity of God."
What does this even mean?
sounds like pure garbage to me
Where is this defined in the bible?
if the bible writers thought this was a thing they could have defined it (come up with as many excuses as you like)
Can this be put in simpler terms (by someone who is not the original writer)?
harder question: How early can this language be traced back too? 2nd century?
(scholarly contributions appreciated, rather than theologically motivated garbage)
this is going to be very brief but a user recently tried to argue an argument that has already been refuted many times - the logic is somewhat sound but falls apart when the definition to the word used it looked and its usages in the bible.the word in question is "aionas" found in the scripture in question hebrews 1:2 .
(https://biblehub.com/hebrews/1-2.htm#lexicon)for starters look at the biblehub translations - do any of them state "outside of time" or that time was "created" in this moment - no because this seems to be heavily inspired by greek philosophy rather than the bible itself.note: i am not saying this word does not mean eternity or anything of the sort, i am saying this scripture some of the claims i dispute and can easily disprove, hence the argument is laughable.. bill mounce defines the word as:pr.
a period of time of significant character; life; an era; an age: hence, a state of things marking an age or era; the present order of nature; the natural condition of man, the world; ὁ αἰών, illimitable duration, eternity; as also, οἱ αἰῶνες, ὁ αἰῶν τῶν αἰώνων, οἱ αἰῶνες τῶν αἰώνων; by an aramaism οἱ αἰῶνες, the material universe, heb.
This statement is false. considering no actual scholars cite this argument and is nothing more than a fanciful interpretation on the text.
since no actaul scripture is cited (if even in the bible) by either Clarke or the other quote - the actual argument is questionable at best, and still would not prove anything.
and now you say "God" refers to just the "The Father"... make up your mind.
"To expose the error of this interpretation" - All of them were "first" in something... and part of their groups not an exeption
though preeminent they were still part of their [parents] children (group) or in David's case, kings it sets tem above the rest yes, but not an exception to the rest.
- sidenote: this is also hypocritical to point out as upon further research the writer of ["Firstborn of the world"] seems to be relying on Jewish mysticism, yet this same person [original poster] has no problem pointing out ones the WT use for being spiritualist etc
Not to mention this writing for "Firstborn of the world" is so far removed from the original NT writings by approx 150 years (at minimuim) that the meaning to the word "Firstborn" in Greek and Hebrew had most certainly changed by that time
this is going to be very brief but a user recently tried to argue an argument that has already been refuted many times - the logic is somewhat sound but falls apart when the definition to the word used it looked and its usages in the bible.the word in question is "aionas" found in the scripture in question hebrews 1:2 .
(https://biblehub.com/hebrews/1-2.htm#lexicon)for starters look at the biblehub translations - do any of them state "outside of time" or that time was "created" in this moment - no because this seems to be heavily inspired by greek philosophy rather than the bible itself.note: i am not saying this word does not mean eternity or anything of the sort, i am saying this scripture some of the claims i dispute and can easily disprove, hence the argument is laughable.. bill mounce defines the word as:pr.
a period of time of significant character; life; an era; an age: hence, a state of things marking an age or era; the present order of nature; the natural condition of man, the world; ὁ αἰών, illimitable duration, eternity; as also, οἱ αἰῶνες, ὁ αἰῶν τῶν αἰώνων, οἱ αἰῶνες τῶν αἰώνων; by an aramaism οἱ αἰῶνες, the material universe, heb.
smiddy3
(I may well be interpreting your comment wrong)
idm if its actually constructive - but our "friend"* fails to realise that most like to be descent human beings here, and cite actual authority's on subjects (not other religious counsels that only one denomination considers an authority)
Its theologically motivated BS that I have a problem with, where the initial post was meant to be a scholarly discussion on the subject at hand - which was then hijacked by someone who ignores "authoritys" in scholarship and goes off things that are still debated in scholarship even today as fact. I would have no problem if they provided actual evidence to support their claims and also were not hypocrites in some departments - but the reality is they are.
You are welcome to say "that's just your opinion" sure ok I can take that, However I would hope (unlike they) would consider an alternative point of view and look at facts to what they are claiming about only one denomination (keep in mind)
* while I have nothing against them personally (except being excessively rude and insensitive at one point) their motives have been revealed recently as to why they post - They are not doing it to be constructive or fair, the posts are theologically motivated with no actual sources cited (Ones that are on JW content are actually very misleading and some downright malicious)
This person claims to be catholic (I cant talk, I don't claim to be anything) but I thought Christians were supposed to be nice even to ones they don't like, did Jesus say go and blast and slander apostates? nope he said the exact opposite.
Jesus went by reason and common sense (of that time) I'm stuffed if I can find it now - but recently I found a quote from Goodspeed who said Jesus was (paraphrasing) One of the most influential people to ever live. I agree with him, however those influences haven't worn off on this person - instead this would be more likely what Jesus described as (paraphrase): "the spirit of this world"
this is going to be very brief but a user recently tried to argue an argument that has already been refuted many times - the logic is somewhat sound but falls apart when the definition to the word used it looked and its usages in the bible.the word in question is "aionas" found in the scripture in question hebrews 1:2 .
(https://biblehub.com/hebrews/1-2.htm#lexicon)for starters look at the biblehub translations - do any of them state "outside of time" or that time was "created" in this moment - no because this seems to be heavily inspired by greek philosophy rather than the bible itself.note: i am not saying this word does not mean eternity or anything of the sort, i am saying this scripture some of the claims i dispute and can easily disprove, hence the argument is laughable.. bill mounce defines the word as:pr.
a period of time of significant character; life; an era; an age: hence, a state of things marking an age or era; the present order of nature; the natural condition of man, the world; ὁ αἰών, illimitable duration, eternity; as also, οἱ αἰῶνες, ὁ αἰῶν τῶν αἰώνων, οἱ αἰῶνες τῶν αἰώνων; by an aramaism οἱ αἰῶνες, the material universe, heb.
PetrW
Finally some [actaully] good scholarship, thank you! I will have a look at your references and get back to you.