What do you have to say about the comparison I made there, Jeffro?
Schizm,
Jeffro DID specifically reply to this question, and so will I. You are correct that it doesn't make much sense for the name to have 16 words in 21st Century American English.
But to force modern rules of language onto an ancient language usage doesn't make much sense, either. That is what you have done. That is not what translators do; it is called paraphrasing. The following is a proper name of the current Pope of Rome:
Pope Benedict XVI, Vicarius Filii Die, Pontifex Maximus, Servus Servorum Dei
Now you may rightly detect that these are titles held by the Pope. However, these "titles" described the role of the bearer and are exclusive to the bearer. At the time these "titles" were acquired by the papacy, these were not considered merely honorific "titles," they were considered part of a name.
Witness a modern example in King's English of a name extended by title: "I dub [name] thee, Sir Ian McKellen. Rise Sir Ian, Knight of the Realm."
Another example, while also more brief than the example in question in Revelation, is demonstrated by our own Eduardo Leaton, Jr. Esquire. The title goes beyond the honorific.
In the case under discussion, "the mother of the harlots and the disgusting things of the earth" applies only to one person: the woman riding the beast. While this fact destroys your notion of a short name for her and simultaneously strains to the point of disbelief your claim about the name of the beast, it remains a fact. In the texts the Bible was translated from, that section is part of the name written on the woman.
As I said earlier, whether or not "mystery" is also part of the name is only in question because it may be an interjection before the name or it may be part of the name. However, at whatever point you start calling the text the name of the harlot (obviously not past Babylon the great), her name extends to the end of the verse as one complete name. You can't move it because there is no separating language in the Greek. If there was, you would have an arguable point. That is why NO Greek translator has ever chopped up and reordered the verse as you suggest doing.
Drawing comparisons to how we use names today is pointless as a guide to translating an ancient language but, as I said, please demonstrate your point from other Greek texts or other ancient usage and I will happily modify my opinion.
As always, you are free to believe whatever you want. Once you step over the line between personal belief and teaching, expect to be challenged thoroughly for proof of accuracy.
AuldSoul
{edited to accurately reflect the content of Jeffro's post}
