Alan said: Nebuchadnezzar's reign ended in 582 B.C., and Egypt was desolate from 588 through 548 B.C. Does that desolation "fit within Nebuchadnezzar's reign",
Do you seriously want an answer to this question? As if the scripture said that Neb had to be around for the whole 40 years?
It says: ‘I will also cause the crowd of Egypt to cease by the hand of Neb·u·chad·rez´zar the king of Babylon. 23 And I will scatter the Egyptians among the nations
Neb caused it. But since you insist on an explanation for this absurd reasoning here it is:
Jer 25: Neb·u·chad·rez´zar the king of Babylon, my servant, and I will bring them against this land and against its inhabitants and against all these nations round about; and I will devote them to destruction and make them an object of astonishment and something to whistle at and places devastated to time indefinite. 10 11 And all this land must become a devastated place, an object of astonishment, and these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years.”’
What? Didn't Neb's rule only last 43 years. How did they serve him 70 years? Or let me use Alan's reasoning: Nebuchadnezzar's reign ended in 582 B.C., and Jerusalem was desolate from 607 through 537 B.C. Does that servitude "fit within Nebuchadnezzar's reign",
It is really getting tiring to have to hold your hand on every little point as if you can't use logic and figure some things out for yourself.