Any comments anyone on whether they think the Bible shows that we still should be speaking in tongues?
Nothing at all implies that the gifts of the spirit would cease. The bestowal of the Spirit in fact is construed as a harbinger of the eschaton (Acts 2:17-21), not as a temporary phase.
One may find good examples of Jewish-Christian ecstatic speech in the pseudepigrapha and in early gnostic works. There is a merkabah vision in the Ladder of Jacob (c. first century AD), which contains the following exclamation: "Holy, holy, holy Yao, Yaova, Yaoil, Yao, Kados Chavod Savaoth, Omlemelech il avir amismi varich" (2:18). This is very broken Hebrew, or rather, a string of OT divine epithets, e.g. Yhw "Yahweh", qdwsh "holy", kbd "glory", tsb'wt "hosts", 'wlm mlk "eternal king", 'l 'byr "Bull El," 'myts "firm, steadfast," brwk "blessed". Since Jews in the Hellenistic diaspora had lost much of their first-language competance in Hebrew, such Hebrew words long associated with religiosity came to be invested with magical and mystical connotations, so it is not unusual to find them in ecstatic speech. One may also note Paul's use of Isaiah 28:11-12 in 1 Corinthains 14:21 which likens the speech of disobediant prophets to intoxicated drunkards and babbling children; the Hebrew of the preceding verse (v. 10), in fact, gives a sample of the kind of nonsense speech: tsaw latsaw, tsaw latsaw, qaw laqaw, qaw laqaw, ze'er sham, ze'er sham. It is clear from the rhetoric of ch. 12-14 of 1 Corinthians that glossolalia was already exceptionally popular in the church at Corinth and rather than banning it outright he tried to divert interest from it to other (more upbuilding) pursuits. This is intelligible because ecstatic religosity was a prominent feature of Hellenistic mystery cults in the area and Gentile converts brought such practices with them into the church.