144,000 resurrected BEFORE Jesus rose?

by tula 65 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • JosephMalik
    JosephMalik

    Lol. Isn't it exactly what you are doing? Does putting the dictionaries away when you don't like what you find in them make it any better?

    Narkissos,

    No! Dictionaries and word matches do not tell the whole story. The truth is in the reality of what took place. We can get this in other ways. To get around this you say:

    I didn't quote any scholarly authority, I gave you a list of references illustrating how the same book uses the same verb in a similar context (the dead). That means homework -- the same kind which has been done upstream of the dictionaries you lightly dismiss.

    So you found another case where dead bodies came out of the rocks? No! Then you did not find similar context as you claim. What you found is other uses for such words in other texts. This is not a solution but a problem because there are such uses. You may even choose to reject other uses not documented. But translators choose other words like "arise" or "raised" with no problem for the text under discussion. The word resurrection was not used for the text in question. It was only used for Jesus and His resurrection. There is no burden of proof on my end, it is still yours. This kind of homework does not trump what has already been established here as the truth. So you go after Paul as if you know better than he does. Perhaps Jesus appointed you personally as well? To avoid the obvious then you say:

    Check 2 Kings 13:20f (which may well lie somewhere in the background of the Matthean story).

    Well I already knew about that account. It states: 20 And Elisha died, and they buried him. And the bands of the Moabites invaded the land at the coming in of the year. 21 And it came to pass, as they were burying a man, that, behold, they spied a band of men; and they cast the man into the sepulchre of Elisha: and when the man was let down, and touched the bones of Elisha, he revived, and stood up on his feet.

    This took place at a time when the LORD was dealing with Israel not Jesus. Now did such Saints as we are discussing touch the bones of Jesus so as to be revived? No! So why bring it up? It only goes to show that some will say anything no matter what. This is something I also want the readers to notice. It was a useless attempt to sway the audience and not a truthful one at that. Jesus is the resurrection and the life. But Jesus was dead for the three days and could not have raise these Saints as already discussed. This is the reality you failed to overcome.

    Joseph

  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    In spite of my view that skeptical objections to miracles are largely without foundation, I have struggled lately with Matthew 27:52-53. I can understand and sympathize with non-believers like XXXXX who consider this passage to be blatantly unbelievable. Unlike Jesus' miracles, which are organically related to his ministry, this story seems "stuck on" and apparently is so bizarre that Harper's Bible Commentary actually advises us to ignore it. If a passage such as this appeared in another claimed revelation I doubt that Christians would take it as anything but a very tall tale. I'd appreciate any ideas on how to deal with this passage when I'm trying to get a doubter to accept the reasonableness of the Christian position on New Testament miracles.
    ...................................................................................
    ZZZ, thanks for your question and your interest in sharing the message of our Wondrous One...

    Matthew is written to the Jew (generally) so we should look there first for some clue as to what is going on...

    Once we start looking around for clues in the Jewish background, a strange situation develops-the passage creates the opposite problem for us! In other words, the passage will seem to be so tightly-woven into Matthew's portrayal of the Messiah that we might have to ask why Mark and Luke didn't mention it!

    Let's first make some notes about the passage...

    And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit. At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook and the rocks split. 52 The tombs broke open and the bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life. 53 They came out of the tombs, and after Jesus' resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many people.

    A few quick notes about what we DO know:

    1. Jesus dies with a loud cry.
    2. The veil of the Temple of torn in two from top to bottom.
    3. There was an earthquake of some sort (common for that area).
    4. The rocks split (a more severe earthquake)
    5. Bodies of many (but not all) Jewish saints came back to life (of some type-natural or supernatural)
    6. They come out of the tombs in which they had been buried.
    7. They went into the "holy city" (undoubtedly Jerusalem)
    8. They became visible to many people (but not all).
    9. The events above concerning the raising/appearing of the saints occurred AFTER the resurrection (most probable punctuation/division of the verse-see standard commentaries).

    And a few notes about what we DO NOT know:

    1. How many were raised.
    2. Whether they were in natural-but-mortal bodies (e.g. Lazarus), natural-but-immortal bodies (e.g. post-resurrection, pre-ascension Jesus), or supernatural/glorified bodies (e.g. post-ascension Jesus in Revelation).
    3. How long they remained on earth (till Jesus ascended? Until they died?).
    4. Whether they only appeared to believing Jews (cf. Acts 10.40-41) or anyone.
    5. Why ALL the saints were not raised?

    (Matthew is not particularly interested in satisfying our curiosity-instead, as we shall see, he is trying to confront us with the awesomeness of Christ's work!)

    So, let's look at this passage from a few different data-points:

    1. First of all, in a major section of Jewish thought of the day (i.e. the rabbinical strains that later became Mishnaic Judiasm) the bodily resurrection of OT Jewish saints would occur when messiah came. They literally expected a bodily resurrection (like that in the passage under discussion) to occur at the revealing of the messiah...

      Indeed, one rabbi was recorded as saying this:

      "R. Jeremiah commanded, 'When you bury me, put shoes on my feet, and give me a staff in my hand, and lay me on one side; that when Messias comes I may be ready." (cited in Lightfoot, _ Commentary of the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica , in.loc.)
      Much of such rabbinical lore had an element of truth in it; and this was no exception...the Messiah DID produce SOME resurrections of SOME the saints--but only as a first-fruits of His work...

      So, in keeping with Matthew's Jewish-oriented message, it makes sense for him to record this action of the Messiah.

    2. This event actually DOES mesh 'organically' with the general topics in NT teachings: Jesus teaching about resurrection to Mary in John; the Christ as firstfruits in Paul; and Christ leading 'captivity captive' (OT saints in Sheol released at the TRUE atonement)...

    3. These types of resurrection people (probably in normal form, like Lazarus was raised) form the basis for one argument of the first apologists of the faith, Quadratus. He was an very early 2nd century apologist (writing sometime during the reign of Hadrian, 117-138ad), and we have only one fragment of his (cited from GASC:36):
      "But our Savior's works were permanent, for they were real. Those who had been cured or rose from the dead not only appeared to be cured or raised but were permanent, not only during our Savior's stay on earth, but also after his departure. They remained for a considerable period, so that some of them even reached our times."
      Now it would be highly unusual for someone raised in 33 ad to live naturally another 90-100 years (to the times of Quadratus' writings) but this is not necessarily the scope of his reference to 'our times'...this latter phrase could often mean plus-or-minus 50-75 years, allowing SOME of these saints to die naturally again (as would have the resurrected Lazarus, the widow's son, etc.) after a few decades.

      The point is that resurrections are not isolated phenomena--they were a bit more widespread than the few individual cases mentioned in the gospels would lead us to believe...Eutychus by Paul, the group at the Crucifixion--indeed, even Ireneaus--a half century later--could write of resurrections in Christian Churches (A.H. 2.32.4)...

      Indeed, stories and legends of these risen saints circulated and were embellished over time. They show up in several of the NT apocryphal works (e.g. The Greek Apocalypse of Ezra 7.1-2, Gospel of Nicodemus 17ff). For example, in this later work (Gospel of Nicodemus/Acts of Pilate), there is the story of Simeon and his sons (living in Arimathea), who were raised at that time, whose tombs were still open (for inspection!), and who wrote sworn testimony to their resurrection. While many of these stories are no doubt fanciful embellishments of the passage in Matthew (apocryphal writings generally "filled in the gaps" left by the biblical writers), there may be some historical core behind such related stories as this one about Simeon.

    4. Paul's argument in Col 2.15:" And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross." MIGHT find a reference to this 'public' display of the resurrection power of Jesus.

    5. Its tight coupling in the narrative with the torn veil, suggests that it too is part of the dramatic display of God's 'change of program' for His people...no longer is access to God 'covered with a veil' and no longer are His saints covered with 'the veil of death'...

    6. It is this last point that tips us off to what Matthew is likely demonstrating/pointing out in this passage: that the rising/appearing of the saints is INTIMATELY CONNECTED with both the literary texture of the passage AND with the ministry of the Jewish Messiah...

      • The connection with the preceding image (i.e. the earthquake and rocks) shows up in the Jewish connection between the two in the thought of the day. So Raymond Brown, in his 1,600 page magisterial work on the Death of the Messiah, gives us the archeological background in DM:1123-1124:
        The connection of the tomb openings with the preceding rending of the rocks is splendidly visible in the Dura Europos synagogue wall-paintings that portray the raising of the dead as part of the enlivening of the dry bones in Ezek 37--a 3d-cent. AD tableau that is very helpful in understanding how Matt and/or his readers might imagine the scene he is narrating. There in the splitting of a mountain covered by trees (almost surely the Mount of Olives rent by an earthquake), rocks are rent, thus opening up tombs burrowed into the sides of the mountain and exposing bodies of the dead and their parts. A figure is depicted who may be the Davidic Messiah (see Ezek 37:24-25) bringing about this raising of the dead. Earlier and contemporary with the writing of Matt there is testimony to the importance that Ezek 37 had for the just who died for their convictions about God. At Masada, where Jewish Zealots made their last stand against the Roman armies in AD 73, in the floor of the synagogue were found fragments of a scroll on which was written Ezekiel's account of his vision of the raising of the dead bones. Consequently, even apart from the Dura Europos picturization, Ezek 37:12-13 may be the key passage behind Matt's description both in this line and in what follows, for it offers the only opening of tombs (as distinct from the simple raising of the dead) described in the OT. The people of God are assured that they will come to know the Lord because: "I will open your tombs [mnema], and I will bring you up out of your tombs, and I will lead you into the land of Israel."
      • Its connection with the messianic ministry of Jesus (of primary concern to Matthew) is also seen:
        The coming of the kingdom of God in the ministry of Jesus was understood not as the final manifestation of the kingdom (i.e., the culmination when the Son of Man would gather before him all the nations, assigning those who are to inherit the kingdom prepared for them from the foundation of the world, as in 25:31-34) but as an inbreaking inaugurating and anticipating it. Similarly, this raising of "many bodies" as Jesus dies is not the universal final resurrection but an inbreaking of God's power signifying that the last times have begun and the judgment has been inaugurated. [DM:1126]
      • And finally, its connection with the presentation motif of Matthew (i.e. relating the events surrounding the life and ministry of Jesus to its OT background) is seen through the explicit Ezekiel imagery:
        Matt's second motive in adding v. 53 was the fulfillment of Scripture. Above I pointed out how much Ezek 37 with its creative description of the enlivening of the dry bones influenced Jewish imagination in picturing the resurrection of the dead. The first part of Ezek 37:12-13, "I will open your tombs," probably shaped the third line of the quatrain of Matt 27:51b-52b, "And the tombs were opened." But the Ezek passage continues: "And I will bring you up out of your tombs, and I will lead you into the land of Israel. Then you shall know that I am the Lord." Even as elsewhere Matt enhances the scriptural background and flavoring of material taken from Mark, so here scripturally he goes beyond the quatrain by offering in 27:53 the fulfillment of the rest of the Ezek passage: "And having come out from the tombs, . . . they entered into the holy city [of Jerusalem]." Another biblical passage may have shaped Matt's addition, especially the last clause "and they were made visible to many," i.e., Isa 26:19 (LXX): "Those in the tombs shall be raised, and those in the land [or on the earth] shall rejoice." Thus in what he has added to Mark (both the quatrain taken over from popular tradition and his own commentary on it), Matt has developed the theological insight. In apocalyptic language and imagery borrowed from Scripture he teaches that the death of Jesus and his resurrection ("raising") marked the beginning of the last times and of God's judgment...[DM:1140]
      Thus the passage finds connection with (1) the Jewish milieu, (2) the messianic mission of Jesus, and (3) the OT prophetic writings about the Messiah. Far from being simply 'stuck on', it is very much a part of the Jewish context in which Jesus ministered and in which Matthew wrote.

    Overall the passage makes the theological connections clear for the reader. Brown summarizes this well, noting that this small passage...
    ...offered a dramatic way in which ordinary people familiar with OT thought could understand that the death of Jesus on the cross had introduced the day of the Lord with all its aspects, negative (divine wrath, judgment) and positive (conquest of death, resurrection to eternal life).' [DM:1137]
    [Also, from this analysis, it should be quite clear as to why it did not show up in Luke-writing to the Gentiles, and in Mark-an abbreviated version of Peter's core preaching (written down by a Hellenistic Jew). It would not have been relevant to their literary purposes.]

    In this small section, we see also a microcosm of the future: judgment will come (and we will be held accountable-each of us) and yet God has graciously made a 'way of escape,' created by the awesome death of the Messiah Jesus (for you, for me, and for your friend...)

    Hope this helps,

    glenn miller, 4/7/97


    The Christian ThinkTank...[http://www.Christian-thinktank.com] (Reference Abbreviations)
  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    Interpretation and Theology

    by Randall Watters

    Biblical Overview

    "How can I interpret this passage?" we ask. Can most passages in the Bible be interpreted any number of ways? Were the parables of Jesus meant to be rich with hidden allegories and detailed significance? Are there no grammatical rules for interpreting the Bible?

    Yes, there are. They are basically the same rules used to determine the historical significance of any ancient document that has become obscure due to changes in culture, ethics and philosophy. They are the same basic rules that we would follow to determine the meaning of the writings of Shakespeare, Aesop, Plato or Hippocrates. When a person uses these rules to determine the meaning of ancient or even contemporary documents, it is called hermeneutics. When these rules are applied to interpreting the Holy Scriptures, we call it hermeneutic theology.

    Webster's dictionary defines the word thusly:

    hermeneutics, n. the science of interpretation, or of finding the meaning of the author's words and phrases, and explaining it to others; exegesis: particularly applied to the interpretation of the Scriptures.

    Wycliffe Bible Encyclopedia points out, "The basic word `hermeneutics' (Greek: hermenia, verb hermeneuo) means `to interpret,' `to expound,' `to explain,' and further includes translating from a foreign language into a familiar language (John 1:38,42; 9:7)."

    Hermeneutics relative to the study of the Word of God is vital to an understanding of God's timeless revelation to men. When the principles of hermeneutics are ignored, not only have men misinterpreted the Word, but they promulgate falsehood and deceive others. We cannot underestimate the importance of knowing the rules of hermeneutics, for in them lies the defeat of all cultic and sectarian theology. So often a discussion with those of the cults is reduced to a game of "scriptural checkers," where each person has a list of scriptures they intend to use in order to prove their point, and the confrontation becomes a standoff; each leaving, at best, with the idea that perhaps there is more than one way to interpret key doctrinal passages. While prophecy and divine revelation may at times be ambiguous (since the events are yet future), most passages in the Bible have one obvious interpretation.

    Those who either intentionally or unwittingly pervert key texts often seek out alternate definitions of certain Greek or Hebrew words in order to justify their interpretation, yet the particular meaning ascribed to does not fit the context in their application.

    WHEN SHOULD HERMENEUTICAL PRINCIPLES BE APPLIED?

    When something isn't clear. Bernard Ramm, author of Protestant Biblical Interpretation, (p.7,8) says that hermeneutical principles are required when "something hinders . . . spontaneous understanding." This can occur often, as we live in another time and place than when the text was written down. There is therefore a historical gap. There is a cultural gap; in that our culture is different. There is a linguistic gap; in that the text is usually in a different language. There is the geographical gap; in that the document originates in another country. Since there is sometimes a totally different attitude towards life and the universe, it can be said that there is a philosophical gap as well.

    Ramm points out that our great need for the science of hermeneutics is to bridge the gap between our minds and the minds of the Biblical writers. People of the same culture, same age and same geographical location understand each other with ease. Patterns of interpretation commence with childhood and early speech behavior, and by the time adulthood is reached the principles of interpretation are so self-evident that we are not aware of them. But when the interpreter is separated culturally, historically, and geographically from the writer he seeks to interpret, the task of interpretation is no longer simple. The greater the cultural, historical, and geographical divergences are, the more difficult is the task of interpretation.

    In reading the Bible, we find the most obvious difficulty is that of language. The Bible was written in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek. To formulate rules to bridge this gap is one of the most important tasks of Biblical hermeneutics. . . . It taxes the learning and judgment of the wisest scholars to decide out of the pool of meanings which is the meaning intended in a given sentence, and then try to match it with some word in the English language; which word may itself express a pool of meanings.

    The following are necessary rules:

    1. Determine the meaning of the original language of any passage as the original readers would have understood it. Ideally, this calls for a knowledge of Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek. Practically speaking, it means the interpreter needs to use the best translations of the Bible available to him. In this connection he ought to learn something of the purpose for which the author wrote and the historical circumstances out of which the writing arose.

    The Scriptures are part of a larger historical and cultural context. In the OT, Israel was related, in one way or another, to the Egyptians, the Assyrians, the Babylonians, the Persians (to name a few); in the NT the church emerged from a Jewish background and arose in the Greco-Roman world. The languages of the Bible reflect these various cultures; thus the interpreter must be knowledgeable of and sensitive to the use of words in their various settings.

    2. Interpret the words of any given verse or paragraph within its immediate context. The context is the ultimate determinate of word meanings. While the dictionary will provide various possibilities, the context will aid in narrowing the choice.

    3. Discover the literary nature of the passage under study. Is it to be taken in the natural, normal sense of the language? Or is it figurative? Is it a narrative of events? Or is it a discourse meant to teach us a specific idea? This calls for some knowledge of customs within the culture involved.

    Often there is no problem in deciding matters of this kind. For example, the parables of Jesus are regarded as illustrations of ideas; figurative language to clarify concepts.

    4. Interpret the Bible in terms of the principle of progressive revelation. Put simply, this means that God revealed things dispensationally, not all at one time. Partly, this was because of the stages in which the Divine program was being fulfilled (Heb. 1:1,2); partly, because of man's state of unreadiness to receive and understand the message (John 16:12). On occasion, this principle involved adding to what had been given earlier. Jesus told his disciples, "I have yet many things to say to you, but ye cannot bear them now." (John 16:12)

    5. Interpret the language in the Bible regarding the natural world as that of appearance and popular rather than technical and scientific. The Bible does not theorize about nature; it simply states facts in an un-technical manner.

    THE HISTORICAL, GRAMMATICAL, INTERPRETIVE METHOD

    Dr. David L. Cooper has eloquently stated a proper definition of the historical, grammatical, interpretive method when he declares, "When the plain sense of scripture makes common sense, seek no other sense; therefore, take every word at its primary, ordinary, usual, literal meaning unless the facts of the immediate context, studied in the light of related passages and axiomatic fundamental truths, indicate clearly otherwise." (Dr. D.L. Cooper, The Messianic Series, parts 14, p. 3)

    When we speak of the historical, grammatical, interpretive method, we are speaking of allowing a given text within its historical, grammatical, geographical and cultural setting to speak for itself. Ramm says,

    Whenever we read a book, an essay, or a poem we presume the literal sense in the document until the nature of the literature may force us to another level. This is the only conceivable method of beginning or commencing to understand literature of all kinds. The non-literal is always a secondary meaning which presumes an already existing literal understanding of literature. This previous stratum of language is the necessary point of departure for the interpretation of all literature. If we attempt to read some Oriental, mystical book we shall first attempt to understand it literally; and when we see that procedure is not doing justice to the text, we then forsake the literal program for a mystical, allegorical or metaphorical one. Therefore, without prejudging the nature of Holy Scripture one way or another (whether there is a deeper or more profound meaning expressed typologically, allegorically, mythologically, or existentially), we must start our interpretation of Holy Scripture from the stance of literal or philological interpretation. (Ramm, ibid., p.123,124)

    So, in other words, there are sound rules for interpreting the Bible, common sense rules; that apply in interpreting virtually any historic literature. If the cultist ignores or rejects these rules of interpretation, then he must also reject the sum total of ancient literary writings available to us today; as they are all interpreted by basically the same rules mentioned above. This is an exceedingly valuable point to establish first in your discussion with Jehovah's Witnesses, Mormons, etc. Ask, what methods of interpretation they use. How do they determine the meaning of a particular text? Press the issue with them until they give an answer! If they recognize the value of the historical, grammatical, interpretive method, then you can proceed to systematically dismantle their entire theological framework piece by piece.

    THEOLOGY

    Proper theology protects us from false teaching. Jesus refuted the teachings of the Pharisees, Paul and John refuted the false teachings of the Gnostics and the early heretics, and so must Christians today.

    The working out of a theology in understandable, logical patterns (usually called systematic theology) is a forced issue, necessitated by heresy itself. For example, the early Christians worshipped the Father and Christ as God and knew them to be eternal, and recognized the Personality of the Holy Spirit. But there appeared to be no need of defining their theology further until these beliefs were attacked by heretics. Gnosticism, Marcionism, and Montanism (early heresies) soon made it apparent what would happen to Christianity if it had no generally accepted canons of scripture and faith. Apologetics, now called the defense of the faith, began as the defense of the faithful. When there are no fixed, clearly acknowledged standards, the wildest and most fanciful notions can become mixed in with basic Christian doctrines and it becomes very hard to separate them. Thus we cannot avoid the study of theology as some would naively suggest. Any religion whose doctrine is attacked by dissidents (just as Christian doctrine was in the days of the apostles) must further define their theology in order to combat heresy, or their doctrinal structure will suffer.

    IS IT ACCEPTABLE TO USE PHILOSOPHICAL TERMS IN THEOLOGICAL STUDIES?

    Harold O.J. Brown says this about the influence of Hellenistic thinking upon doctrine:

    It is evident that Trinitarian theology required the aid of Hellenistic concepts and categories for its development and expression, but they were the tools by means of which the implications of the New Testament were realized; they were not foreign concepts imposed upon an essentially simple message.

    The adoption of the Nicene Creed in 325 and the Chalcedonian Creed in 451 stabilized the doctrines of the Trinity and Christ for over one thousand years. They made use of Hellenistic categories and thinking to do so. The important question to ask is not whether orthodox theology betrays Hellenistic influence. Nothing else was possible in the cultural climate of the time. The important question is whether this orthodoxy represents a proper and correct interpretation of New Testament Christology or whether it seriously distorts it. (Heresies, p. 146, 105)

    How can we illustrate the need to further define doctrine using the NT as an example? Well, Jesus never developed the doctrine of salvation to the extent that Paul does in his letters to the Romans and Galatians. Jesus never defined the details of the heavenly resurrection as does Paul in 1 Corinthians chapter 15. Jesus never elaborated on the antitypical symbolism of the Temple and its furniture, such as we find in Hebrews; there we find a theology developed through reason and logic, plus the inspiration of the Spirit. The OT and the words of Jesus contained the principles, or foundations, upon which to build this theology, but contained no developed concept of these subjects such as we find in Hebrews and the writings of Paul.

    When the doctrine of the resurrection of Jesus Christ was challenged, Paul came to the rescue in 1 Corinthians 15:1258 with a well-developed refutation of those who denied the bodily resurrection of Christ. Why did Paul not let the opposers alone? Weren't the simple statements of Jesus on the resurrection adequate enough to silence unbelievers? Evidently not, for Paul feared the skeptics would eventually destroy the congregations with their heresies. The Gnostics were also a very formidable threat to the early church, so the apostle John put forth effort in refuting them in his writings. SUCH REBUTTALS AS THESE WERE NOT NECESSARY IN THE BEGINNING! Jesus' words were just taken literally; and his second advent, the resurrection, the fate of the wicked, etc. were not "spiritualized" into vague metaphors. The early Christian congregations accepted a literal, bodily resurrection of Christ. There was no need for details to be defined on the subject of the resurrection until the heretics came along and challenged the resurrection. Note this historical observation by Brown regarding early theology:

    Opinions differ as to which early Christian writer deserves to be called the first theologian. A claim may be made for the converted philosopher Justin Martyr (ca. 100ca. 165), author of the celebrated First Apology, dealing with pagan arguments, and of the Dialogue with Trypho the Jew, dealing with Jewish ones. We shall choose the Greek-speaking Bishop of Lyons in southern Gaul, Irenaeus (ca. 125ca. 202), author of a five-volume work, Against Heresies, written about 18089. The full title is The Unmasking and Refutation of Falsely so-called Gnosis. Thus we see that one of the very earliest significant doctrinal works of Christianity was the direct result not of any desire to produce a comprehensive theology, but grew out of the necessity to deal with a dangerous and persistent heresy. (Heresies, p.42)

    Thus there is a pattern: doctrine often must be clarified further to refute opposition.

    Interestingly, the 27 books of the NT were canonized (accepted as inspired) by none other than the early church. In fact, all 27 books were not fully canonized until around 400 A.D., long after many of the significant writings of the early church fathers were also in their possession. We may almost say that the development of the body of doctrine preceded the arrival of the complete NT, for while the different books of the NT were written before or near the end of the first century and the Apostles' Creed dates from no earlier than 125, the first documentary evidence for the existence of a fairly complete NT canon, the Muratorian Fragment, dates from ca. 200, and the canonicity of some books of the NT remained controversial until into the fourth century, by which time many substantial doctrinal works had been written by the church fathers.

    Therefore it may be said that while the Bible is inspired and complete for every good work, opponents of Christianity will seek to distort the language or context of its message, requiring clarification of its truths. Utmost care must be exercised, however, that in clarifying the truths, one does not change the actual message.

    Refuting Jehovah's Witnesses

    [In the following pages nine major interpretive errors of the Watchtower are discussed. Credit goes to James Sire for his outline of errors in Scripture Twisting.]

    [1] WORLDVIEW CONFUSION

    When we say "worldview," we are referring to the spectacles through which we look at life. In other words, we all look at life in a certain way. One of Russell's very first ideas was that Christ returned invisibly in 1874.1 By the late 20's, the date of this supposed event was changed to 1914.2 Using this notion as a foundation, everything he believed had to fit into the idea that Christ had already returned. So whenever he read anything in the Bible, his mind said, "We have to understand this in view of the fact that Christ has already returned." That's how a world view affects one's doctrine. It means seeing through a set of colored glasses; if you put on a set of yellow sunglasses, everything you see is going to be yellow. If you put on a set of "glasses" that says Christ already returned invisibly, everything you read in the Bible has to fit that, or you're going to change it, either consciously or subconsciously.

    Originally, Russell and his followers believed that God had specially chosen Russell as his messenger, the "faithful and discreet slave." In the Society's early literature, they say that Russell was the chosen instrument used by God as the seventh and final messenger to the Christian church.

    Russell believed there were only 144,000 members in the bride of Christ. He had a small group of followers (about 6,000), and they believed that most of the "anointed ones" (the bride of Christ) were chosen by the end of the first century. According to Russell, his followers were now in the last days, and there were a few left of this "class," probably around 6,000 to 9,000, which were the remaining members to be chosen for the bride of Christ. So, we find the organization reading the Bible through glasses that say only l44,000 are in the bride of Christ.

    Can such an idea be supported by historical records?

    Foxe's Book of Martyrs and Martyr's Mirror testifies that there were at least 250,000 Christians martyred for their faith in the early church! Since the number of those martyred for a cause is generally a small percentage of the total number involved in the cause, there had to have been much more than 144,000 true Christians back then. The Watchtower is implying that out of all those Christians, only a few, the "elite," were true Christians. Now, what puts them, living in the 20th century, in a position to say that? If 250,000 were ready to die for their faith and WERE put to death, how can the WT write them off as insincere or misled? This is simply an arbitrary assumption.

    The follow-up doctrine to the "few anointed ones" is that there is a "great crowd" of "favorable ones" who do not really share with Christ, but will live on the earth under the supervision of the "earthly representatives" of Christ. Interestingly, the WT once taught that this "great crowd" was going to heaven, but that they weren't quite good enough to be a part of the bride of Christ. Because Rutherford later realized this to be unscriptural, he changed it. In 1935, he came out and said the "great crowd" was going to live on the earth. And because they weren't really born again, or "anointed," they wouldn't have the capability of understanding the Bible because they didn't have an anointing from God. So there were class distinctions from the very beginning of this organization.

    The WT originally taught that the Bible was meant for Russell alone to interpret. A statement is made in the WT of Sept. 15, 1910 where Russell says, in effect, "If you read my books you'll find the truth of the Bible. If you've read my books, and then stop and just read the Bible itself (putting my books aside), you'll fall into darkness within two years." (Watchtower Reprints, p.298,299)

    The WT changed their tune after the death of Russell and now say that the organization alone is qualified to interpret the Bible. In the Oct. 1, 1967 WT (p. 587) they say,

    The Bible is an organizational book and belongs to the Christian congregation as an organization, not to individuals, regardless of how sincerely they may believe they can interpret the Bible. For this reason, the Bible cannot be properly understood without Jehovah's visible organization in mind.

    Today, the ORGANIZATION is the primary emphasis of their current teaching. The WT has always taught that Armageddon is "just around the corner," and accordingly they set the dates: 1914, 1918, 1925, 1941, and 1975 for it. Many JWs put their trust in 1975 and were sorely disappointed when nothing happened. The current teaching is that Armageddon will occur within the generation that began in 1914. "Updating" old prophecies presents no problem to them.

    [2] INACCURATE OR INCOMPLETE QUOTATIONS

    The WT exerts much effort to establish that certain passages in the Bible don't mean what they actually say. This becomes manifest in their treatment of Matt. 27:5153. When they quote from this passage, they leave out verse 53 and indicate its omission by using [ . . . ]. In fact, in their New World Translation, verse 53 is put in parenthesis, obviously for no other reason than that they don't want it there! Verse 53 says: "And persons coming out from the memorial tombs after his being raised up entered into the holy city." The WT has used the rest of the verses of this passage to try and prove that just the graves of the saints were thrown open and the decaying corpses were thrown upright, so that people from the city passing by could view them! It is obvious why they left out verse 53, because corpses would have difficulty walking into the city! This is done to support their denial of the concept of a bodily resurrection. When you read The Watchtower, keep an eye out for this familiar clue, [ . . . ]. It is obvious that not only are they guilty of incomplete or inaccurate quotation, but also twisted translation.

    In the 10/15/75 WT we find an article in the "Questions From Readers" on Matt. 27:5153. The article says that "Scholars admit that the sense and proper translation is unusually difficult." Interestingly, one is hard-pressed to find a commentary which indicates that the translation is difficult. Perhaps believing it poses a difficulty for the WT, but even in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation that they use, the simple sense of the verse is clear. The 10/15/75 WT continues to say,

    Without wresting the Greek grammar the translator can render Matt. 27:52,53 in a way that suggests that a similar exposing of corpses resulted from the earthquake occurring at Jesus' death. Thus, the translation by Johannes Greber renders these verses, "Tombs were laid open, many bodies of those buried there were tossed upright, and in this posture they projected from the graves and were seen by many who passed by the place on their way back to the city."

    Now, that gives you an entirely different meaning, doesn't it? Such an interpretation can hardly be supported from the Greek! Yet the Governing Body agrees with Johannes Greber, a confirmed spiritist who wrote his own bible with the aid of the "spirit world."

    The WT was well aware of Greber's connection with the spirit world and even published this information as far back as 1956, yet continued to quote from his bible in order to support their doctrinal positions as late as 1983. It is plain to see that they HAVE wrested the Greek grammar totally out of its context and wording.

    [3] IGNORING THE CONTEXT

    As mentioned earlier, Col. 1:15 calls Christ the "firstborn (Greek: prototokos) of all creation." Greek dictionaries will tell you that prototokos has two definitions: (1) the first one born in a family, or (2) it is used to express priority and authority. In all five cases in the New Testament where this word is used in reference to Christ, it carries the second meaning. In many cases in the Old Testament (in the Greek Septuagint), it also carries the second meaning, as when Ephraim is called the firstborn, though Manasseh was actually the first one born. How do we know which definition of "firstborn" to use in Col. 1:15? Let's examine the context.

    We must ask, is this passage discussing Christ's creation, or is it discussing Christ as Creator (the head over all things)? Col. 1:15 says about Christ, that "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, for by Him all things were created." Paul is making it plain that because Christ created all things, he is therefore the firstborn (head) over all things in heaven and earth. So the WT has intentionally ignored the context of this passage; and the word [other] is added to support their point.

    [4] COLLAPSING CONTEXTS

    This means taking two different and unrelated contexts in the Bible and combining them into a doctrine that doesn't really have anything to do with either context.

    The WT has done this in its treatment of Rev. 7:9, where it says, "Look! I saw a great crowd which no man was able to number, out of all tribes. . . ." The WT interprets this "great crowd" as being unregenerate people that are not truly "anointed" ones (though they are standing in the very presence of God in white robes, symbolizing their righteousness!). Then they take a statement in John 10:16, where Jesus says, "I have other sheep, which are not of this fold, these too I must bring, and they will become one flock with one shepherd," and try to fit it together with the "great crowd" of Rev. 7:9. While to any serious Bible student John 10:16 obviously applies to the Gentiles (who were not yet introduced to Christ), the WT world view of two classes of Christians causes them to combine these two unrelated passages in an endeavor to support their doctrine.

    [5] SELECTIVE CITING

    In this case, certain passages in the Bible are used to prove a point, and other passages are ignored that might lead to a somewhat different conclusion. This is exemplified in the WT's explanation of the Hebrew word, sheol (the place of the dead). While calling attention to the verses that indicate inactivity in sheol, they ignore references to sheol that would lead one to an entirely different conclusion. They are silent about several passages where sheol represents a place of conscious existence for those who have died. Why would they leave these out? In order to fit their preconceived world view, which says that there is no existence beyond the grave.

    [6] CONFUSED DEFINITION

    In this case, different definitions are given for Biblical words or concepts than are commonly understood. If we use English as our common language, it behooves us to use it properly and not to "make up" new definitions to support our particular world view. For instance, while the word death can mean annihilation in the English language under certain situations, it is not used at all in the Bible in this sense. It is always used to signify either spiritual death or bodily corruption; or both. The word torment is taken from the Greek basanizo, which means to torture. So when the Bible uses this word in Rev. 14:10 and Rev. 20:10 to refer to individuals who are tormented forever and ever, it is dishonest for the WT to try and interpret this as something other than physical or spiritual punishment of a conscious being, regardless of how uncomfortable they may find this concept. To say (as they do) the never-ending torment of Rev. 20:10 means the wicked will leave us with "bad memories" (since the wicked will supposedly be annihilated) is a confused definition.

    Another word severely misused by the WT is the word body, translated from the Greek soma. According to Webster's Dictionary, body is used with reference to having a material, as opposed to spiritual, nature. A body has to have some kind of material substance, either known or unknown. Even the Greek dictionaries do not allow for a definition other than material substance for this word.

    [7] OBVIOUS FALLACY

    Something is presented as "obviously" factual, even though it is not. In their book, United In Worship (p. 71) the WT says,

    Those who adhere to traditional religions, both inside Christendom and outside, think they have an immortal soul, which would make resurrection unnecessary.

    This is an assumption which is based on a misunderstanding of Christian doctrine regarding the resurrection. They continue,

    Any who try to reconcile these two concepts find it more confusing than hope-inspiring.

    This is assumption number two, that Christians are confused by their own doctrine.

    [8] SUPPLEMENTING BIBLICAL AUTHORITY

    The WT teaches that man needs something other than the Bible to come to a knowledge of truth. In the Jan. 15, 1983 WT, referring to those who question the authority of the organization they say:

    If we get to thinking that we know better than the organization, we should ask ourselves, "Where did we learn Bible truth in the first place? Would we know the way of the truth if it had not been for the guidance of the organization? Really, can we get along without the direction of God's organization? No, we cannot." (p.27)

    They are saying that a person would not know the truth if it had not been for them; they are the only source of truth. What they are really saying is that anyone, anywhere in the world who picks up the Bible can never hope to have the truth until they find the WT organization.

    [9] IGNORING THE HISTORICAL RECORD

    The WT likes to quote from historical authorities in order to support their world view; and yet, most often the historian that they quote from does not agree with their distorted concepts at all. Or, they may quote historians partially, just enough to make an isolated point. A case in point is in the Sept. 15, 1983 WT, where they quote from Paul Johnson, who wrote A History of Christianity. In his book, Mr. Johnson makes the statement that "Christianity began in confusion. . . ." In its stated form, this was unacceptable for quoting due to its contradicting the WT's view (that the early Christians were highly organized). So what do they do? They add a word in brackets, and now the WT's quote of Paul Johnson reads, "[Apostate] Christianity began in confusion. . . ." So they have turned the meaning around 180 degrees from what Mr. Johnson intended to say, and they weren't even honest enough to let you know that they were misquoting him!

    Interestingly enough, there are no historical records to verify that the early Christian congregations were anything like the modern-day Kingdom Halls of Jehovah's Witnesses. The early congregations were almost identical to the churches we see today, in respect to their lack of unity and internal problems!

    Actually, Paul Johnson does make some very enlightening statements that the WT will not quote, for they do not fit into their world view. Remember, they get selective. Paul Johnson says,

    The Followers of Jesus were divided right from the start on elements of faith and practice; and the further the missionaries moved from the base, the more likely it was that their teachings would diverge. Controlling them implied an ecclesiastical organization. In Jerusalem, there were leaders and pillars, vaguely-defined officials modeled on Jewish practice; but they were ineffective. The Jerusalem council was a failure it outlined a consensus but could not make it work in practice. Paul could not be controlled, nor presumably could others. Nor could the pillars of this inner party maintain their authority even in Jerusalem. They slipped back into Judaism. Then came the catastrophe of 66-70 A.D. and the central organization of the church, as it was, disappeared. The atmosphere of the early church, in short, was that of a loosely organized revivalist movement. (ibid., p. 44)

    That's how Mr. Johnson defines the early church; considerably different than the goose-stepping WT organization. The historical records reveal that the early churches were just as divisive as the churches today, yet holding on to a basic view of Christ, God and the Holy Spirit, as well as the incarnation and bodily resurrection of Christ.

    In summary, a most effective technique to cause the JW to reexamine what he has been taught is to ask him how the Governing Body interprets the Bible. Since they do not tell their followers what procedure they use, the JW will be at a loss to comment. He can then be shown the proper technique of interpretation, and will be in a position to compare the two methods. He will find one to be arbitrary, the other logical and consistent.

    1 Russell borrowed his doctrine of the "invisible return" from the Adventists, whose founder William Miller had predicted the return of Christ for 1843. When he didn't come as predicted, Miller's followers concluded that, since the date "must be" correct, his return would be invisible. Russell customized this view by changing the date to 1874.

    2 World events were used as "proof" that 1874 was Christ's return. The events that began in 1914, however, provided even greater "proof" than 1874, so the 1874 date was rejected by J.F. Rutherford. This gave the WT more time as well, since 1914 was originally supposed to be the end of the world!


  • tula
    tula

    Mercy! Y'all have given me a lot to read and think about. I will have to come back to this. I am headed out to rolfer today.

    Thank you all for this great participation.

  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    Did you know there is more than one type of resurrection described in scripture? Did you know Christ experienced two different kinds of resurrection?

    386
    386 anastasis {an-as'-tas-is}
    from 450; TDNT - 1:371,60; n f
    AV - resurrection 39, rising again 1, that should rise 1,
    raised to life again + 1537 1; 42
    1) a raising up, rising (e.g. from a seat)
    2) a rising from the dead
    2a) that of Christ
    2b) that of all men at the end of this present age
    2c) the resurrection of certain ones history who were restored
    to life (Heb. 11:35)

    NT:386
    anastasis (an-as'-tas-is); from NT:450; a standing up again, i.e. (literally) a resurrection from death (individual, genitive case or by implication [its author]), or (figuratively) a (moral) recovery (of spiritual truth):

    KJV - raised to life again, resurrection, rise from the dead, that should rise, rising again.
    (Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright (c) 1994, Biblesoft and International Bible Translators, Inc.)

    Resurrection has more than one meaning so it is important to know them all and how they are used in scriptural context.


    One is the resurrection of Christ and he actually experienced two types of resurrections.

    The first is written here:

    Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
    Matthew 27:53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

    Note how it says Christ had a resurrection right after he died! This is over 3 days before the more common type of resurrection that is known when he arose and left his tomb.

    This kind of resurrection where you rise up out of your human body into a spiritual body. It is also referred to as the "resurrection of the dead":

    1 Corinthians 15:12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?
    1 Corinthians 15:13 But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:
    1 Corinthians 15:14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
    1 Corinthians 15:15 Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
    1 Corinthians 15:16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
    1 Corinthians 15:17 And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
    1 Corinthians 15:18 Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished.

    Here Paul speaks against two schools of thought. One is that the dead remain dead until some future time where they rise, and the other is that the dead simply never rise. What Paul is saying here is that if the dead do not rise right after dying (a visible example of this shown in Matthew 27:52-53) then Christ also did not rise after dying. Christ did not remain in his literal grave but went to the the dead to preach to them. This proves he resurrected after death and was alive even after dying and all this before he returned to his corpse and it was then resurrected through transfiguration which essentially changes the human body into the spiritual body and in His case his physical scars remained.

    Matthew 22:31 But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying,
    Matthew 22:32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.

    God is the God of the living so when we do die, we resurrect into a new body. However, all who are not found in the book of life on judgement day have what is known as a "mortal soul". Being in this new spiritual body does not guarantee eternal life.

    Luke 20:35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:

    I also like this wording because it shows a resurrection from the dead.

    1537
    1537 ek {ek} or ex {ex}

    a primary preposition denoting origin (the point whence action or
    motion proceeds), from, out (of place, time, or cause; literal
    or figurative;; prep

    AV - of 367, from 181, out of 162, by 55, on 34, with 25, misc 97; 921

    1) out of, from, by, away from

    Luke 20:35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection [away from] the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:

    This simply means all are raised up and resurrect from the state of human death and no not actually remain in a lifeless state of being. All who die essentially are "the living dead" meaning they are alive but they did in fact die a human death. Another useage of the term "dead" would refer to those souls who did not overcome and therefore essentially have a soul that shall be killed. Though they are alive for now, they in fact died a human death and also are "dead" (or will be) in more complex of ways.

    So then, the same resurrection that Christ experienced takes place when a person dies. The difference between Christ and the rest is that he was to return to his corpse and it would be transfigured into the new body he had. This was to fulfill prophecy and show visibly that he was alive but most people who die do not have this happen to them.

    So we have the resurrection after death which occurs very quickly, probably instantly where one rises back to God and also receives a new body, the spiritual or as some have named the "heavenly" or "angelic" body. Whatever you call it, that's what a soul receives after leaving the human body.

    Acts 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.

    Here we read of the second type of resurrection Christ experienced which was when he left hell (not the lake of fire type of hell but the type known as the grave, where the unsaved dead go after they die. Christ went there to preach) and returned to his corpse so that the transfiguration of his spiritual body and his former human body could merge.

    So we have a first resurrection right when he died that triggered a literal resurrection of the dead bodies of human beings. Some of the dead bodies literally came back to life, the soul returning to it, and these people were once again actually living human beings again. These did not transfigure as Christ would however. These left their spiritual bodies and returned to their former bodies which were reanimated back to full human life. These also would eventually have to die again.

    Matthew 27:53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

    1454
    1454 egersis {eg'-er-sis}
    from 1453; TDNT - 2:337,195; n f
    AV - resurrection 1; 1

    1) a rousing, excitation
    2) a rising up
    3) resurrection from the dead

    I will also mention that this particular word is used one time in all of scripture. The root word is used 141 times but this version is special and only used this one time and I believe it is because this resurrection was not the same as his corpse resurrection.

    The entire reason he had a corpse resurrection was to give a physical sign of the spiritual resurrection that cannot be seen. Amen?

    There is over 3 days difference in the two resurrections. I believe it is fact that the dead saints were awake and in open graves when Christ's spirit resurrected and I submit that logic and the text says they got up and went into the city right then.

    Matthew 27:51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
    Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
    Matthew 27:53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.
    Matthew 27:54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

    I submit that all these events are written in chronological order and the "saw the earthquake, and those things that were done" proves that all those events happened on the same day and all were witnessed by others.

    Matthew 27:50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
    Matthew 27:51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
    Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
    Matthew 27:53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.

    Here we have a series of things that occurred right after he died:

    1: veil torn
    2: earth quake
    3: rocks rent
    4: graves opened
    5: saints arose
    6: saints leave graves
    7: saints enter the city

    All these things happen as soon as Christ died. Since we all know the spirit returns to God right after death, then that is a resurrection.

    1454
    1454 egersis {eg'-er-sis}
    from 1453; TDNT - 2:337,195; n f
    AV - resurrection 1; 1
    1) a rousing, excitation
    2) a rising up
    3) resurrection from the dead

    His spirit experienced "a rising up" and a "rousing" when it left his dead body.

    Matthew 27:54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.

    Here we see that the centurion "saw the earthquake, and those things that were done"

    Luke 23:42 And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom.
    Luke 23:43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.

    How else could Christ say to the thief on the cross, “To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.”? The thief too was spiritually resurrected to heaven at the moment of his physical death, because Christ had already gone into heaven. The promise was TODAY, so Christ’s resurrection too must have been spiritual, how else could Christ promise the thief that he would be with Him that day in paradise (heaven)?


    Luke 20:34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
    Luke 20:35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:
    Luke 20:36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
    Luke 20:37 Now that the dead are raised, even Moses shewed at the bush, when he calleth the Lord the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.
    Luke 20:38 For he is not a God of the dead, but of the living: for all live unto him.

    "Now that the dead are raised, even Moses shewed at the bush"

    This means that those who have died in the past have resurrected from the dead human body and to prove this Moses is mentioned because he died and yet he was seen alive long before the more commonly known type of resurrection which happens at the end. Moses was resurrected at the moment of physical death and is used to demonstrate that fact.

    Another more complex type is the resurrection of believers that takes place at the Second Coming of Christ.

    Luke 14:14 And thou shalt be blessed; for they cannot recompense thee: for thou shalt be recompensed at the resurrection of the just.

    This is known as the "resurrection of the just" which differs from the resurrection of the dead or "from the dead" which the just and the unjust experience. The parable of the rich man and Lazarus also documents this fact.

    Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
    Revelation 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
    Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

    This type of ressurection is the one that occurs when Christ returns and it happens to those that "were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands" which means those who died in the tribulation because they refused to take the mark of the beast as well as those who refused the mark of the beast but who survived the tribulation. These are the 144,000 who will be the ones Paul said would not die but would be changed in a twinkling of an eye and be changed. So what they have in common is that both refused the mark of the beast and both cannot be hurt of the second death which means they have eternal life guaranteed even though this is before judgement day. That is know as the "first resurrection" and has nothing to do with any type of bodily resurrection but it's a spiritual resurrection to eternal life.

    Being that a first resurrection is mentioned here and its eternal life for some, there will be a second kind of this resurrection and that is on judgement day when those whose names are found in the book of life are given eternal life. This will be the second example of this form of resurrection.

    John 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

    And here is the opposite to this type of resurrection to life, a resurrection to damnation. They were fully alive like the rich man but waited to be "resurrected" to face judgement:

    Revelation 20:13 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works.

    1: A resurrection of or from the dead human body. All experience this resurrection when they die.
    2: A resurrection of the dead human body itself, restored back to complete human life.
    3: A resurrection from a resurrected state back to merge into and transfigure the human body (Christ's second resurrection)
    4: A resurrection of the just at the second coming. This is when they will know they have eternal life and that the second death cannot hurt them.
    5: A resurrection of damnation for those whose names are not written in the book of life.

    Hebrews 11:35 Women received their dead raised to life again: and others were tortured, not accepting deliverance; that they might obtain a better resurrection: __________________
    1Peter 3:15
    (BBE) But give honour to Christ in your hearts as your Lord; and be ready at any time when you are questioned about the hope which is in you, to give an answer in the fear of the Lord and without pride;

  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    Mr. Johnson finds himself in the same place that all orthodox preterists do, namely, having to figure out why Paul mentioned what on the surface seemed to be a incidental timing mistake, and yet became ballistic over that mistake. The orthodox for centuries have assumed that the implication of that timing mistake was that Hymenaeus and Philetus were asserting that since the "resurrection" had already come (either some sort of gnostic-spiritual resurrection, or the partial physical resurrection mentioned in Matt 27:52-53), they were obviously implying there wasn't going to be another physical one at the end of time, and since Paul held the end-of-time resurrection to be such an important doctrine, he unloaded on them. However, Mr. Johnson says that the timing mistake made by Hymenaeus and Philetus implied some other dangerous error, namely that (1) Jesus' teaching in the Olivet discourse, and the apostles' teaching elsewhere, concerning the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 and associated events, is erroneous, because that A.D. 70 coming to destroy Jerusalem is associated by Jesus and the apostles with the resurrection that Hymenaeus and Philetus said had already come. If Hymenaeus and Philetus were right that the resurrection had already come, then Jesus was wrong when he (as alleged by the hyperpreterists) said that Jerusalem would be destroyed when the resurrection came, because Jerusalem was still standing in the time of Hymenaeus and Philetus. (2) Christians pre-A.D. 70 would still see the sacrificial system working in Jerusalem, a sacrificial system which should have been destroyed at the pre-A.D. 70 hymenaean "resurrection," and therefore Christians in Paul's time would think that Jesus' sacrifice would not be once for all, and (3) a pre-A.D. 70 hymenaean "resurrection" would imply that the Lord's coming in judgment had already arrived, and therefore the relief from Jewish persecution that the pre-A.D. 70 Christians were expecting would not happen, thus discouraging them.

    Let's first show, on orthodox preterist premises, how Mr. Johnson's objections can be handled. All three of his objections above assume that the resurrection of the dead occurred in A.D. 70. However, Jesus never associated the resurrection of believers with his coming in judgment on Jerusalem in A.D. 70. In addition, the apostles never linked the resurrection of the dead to Jesus' coming in judgment in A.D. 70. To assert that the resurrection of the dead occurred in A.D. 70 is of course, the hyperpreterists' main contention, and to refute it would involve a detailed exegesis of the relevant coming and resurrection passages, which is far beyond the scope of this article. Such a discussion, however, can be found in Jonathan Seriah's The End of All Things, which conclusively destroys the heretical preterist notion that every coming passage, including those linked with the resurrection of the dead, occurred in A.D. 70. If you buy into the orthodox preterist premise that a distinction should be made between "coming in judgment in A.D. 70" and "resurrection of the dead at the end of time," than Mr. Johnson's three objections fall away. For example, in objection (1), with the resurrection decoupled from the judgment coming in A.D. 70, it is perfectly plausible that Hymenaeus and Philetus could assert a gnostic, spiritual resurrection, still leaving the possibility of a judgment-coming intact, thus maintaining Jesus' and the apostles' truth-telling integrity. In objection (2), a gnostic, spiritual resurrection claimed by Hymenaeus and Philetus is still compatible with a later judgment-coming to take care of the OT sacrificial system. In objection (3), a gnostic, spiritual Hymenaean "resurrection" pre-A.D. 70 still leaves open the possibility of a later judgment-coming to relieve the pre-A.D. 70 Christians of their persecution.

    However, many reading this article will not buy into orthodox preterist premises. So, for the sake of argument lets now assume to be true Mr. Johnson's heretical preterist premises, and reduce his argument to absurdity.

    First, one will notice that his argument requires a close link between the resurrection of the dead and Jesus' destruction of the temple in A.D. 70. When Hymenaeus and Philetus erroneously claim the resurrection of the dead has already occurred, asserts Mr. Johnson, then Hymenaeus and Philetus are also erroneously asserting that Jesus' destruction of the temple in A.D. 70 has also occurred, thus making Jesus' Olivet Discourse a lie, thus leaving intact the defunct OT sacrificial system and clouding the centrality of Jesus' blood sacrifice, thus depriving the pre-A.D. 70 Christians of hope for deliverance from persecution. Now, the question I have for Mr. Johnson is this. How could Hymenaeus and Philetus maintain such an erroneous idea in the face of this stupendous fact: THE CITY AND TEMPLE OF JERUSALEM WERE STILL STANDING PRE-A.D. 70 DURING THE TIME OF THE DISPUTE BETWEEN HYMENAEUS AND PHILETUS AND PAUL!!!! Mr. Johnson taunts me with this question: "If Paul was so upset over Hymenaeus' understanding of the nature of the resurrection, then why did he not challenge their non-physical concept? This would have been Paul's golden opportunity to challenge their erroneous concept of the resurrection. Instead Paul challenges their understanding of the timing." Well, what's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander. I now ask Mr. Johnson the same question he asks me, mutatis mutandis: "If Paul was so upset over Hymenaeus' understanding of the timing of Jesus' coming in judgment of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 and the resurrection that was going to happen then, then why did he not challenge their miscomprehension by pointing out that the temple was still standing, and that the (spiritual) resurrection hadn't occurred yet? This would have been Paul's golden opportunity to challenge their erroneous concept of the resurrection, which was that it had come before Jesus had come in judgment on Jerusalem. Instead Paul challenges their understanding of the timing." To put it simply, if Hymenaeus and Philetus were saying the resurrection was divorced from the coming in judgment on Jerusalem in A.D. 70, having occurred pre-A.D. 70, and the resurrection, having occurred pre-A.D. 70, was divorced from the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 with which the coming was intimately linked by Jesus in the Olivet Discourse, then the simplest and quickest way for Paul to rebuke Hymenaeus and Philetus was to taunt them with the continued existence of the temple, which would immediately and easily prove to anyone potentially seduced by Hymenaeus and Philetus that indeed, the resurrection had not come yet, contrary to the assertions of those two. And yet Paul did not do this. The logical reader will deduce thus that Paul was not, therefore, concerned with an erroneous conception of the timing of an A.D. 70 resurrection. I have already shown in my previous article that he couldn't be upset with a mere matter of a maximum forty year timing error. If the issue was not a mere matter of timing, and if the issue could have had nothing to do with an erroneous claim that required a destroyed temple, we can only conclude, therefore, that the only thing left about which to be upset with Hymenaeus and Philetus was the fact that the end-of-time resurrection hadn't happened yet, and when Hymenaeus and Philetus said "THE resurrection" had already taken place, they were saying that THE resurrection at the end of time had been pre-empted,2 and therefore, since the one and only resurrection had already occurred, and wasn't going to happen again, and the tombs everywhere still had physical bodies in them, the tombs were always going to have physical bodies in them, and therefore there wasn't ever going to be a physical resurrection. This last conclusion is exactly what today's heretical preterists believe, placing them squarely in the center of the same target at which Paul aimed his heavy verbal artillery when he called Hymenaeus and Philetus blasphemers, gangrenous, vile cankers, and faith-shipwreckers.

    Let me anticipate an objection to my argument above. In a private email addressed to me, a hyperpreterist stated that "News in the first century traveled very slowly and rumors about what was happening in other parts of the Roman Empire were abundant (you'll hear of 'wars and RUMORS of wars'). It would be very easy for a rumor to get started that the Temple had been destroyed, thus signaling to the rest of Christendom that the END of the OLD TESTAMENT had come" (emphasis his). In other words, Hymenaeus and Philetus could have maintained their erroneous claim that the resurrection and the alleged associated destruction of Jerusalem had occurred, if a false rumor persisted that Jerusalem had been destroyed. This would, of course, vitiate my arguments in the paragraph above.

    I would answer these arguments in the following manner. First, there is absolutely no evidence that there was a rumor that the Temple had been destroyed. The assertion of such a rumor is sheer supposition. Second, when Jesus said there would be "rumors" of wars, he certainly did not mean that there would be in the near future rumors of a war that had destroyed the temple in Jerusalem, as my email correspondent alleges, thus allowing Hymenaeus and Philetus to get away with their claim that the destruction of the Temple and the (alleged) associated resurrection of the dead had already occurred. When Jesus said "rumors of wars," he most certainly meant there would be rumors of wars that might be about to happen, but which in fact, were not happening at the time the rumor was heard. If Jesus meant for "rumors" to refer to impending, but not actually occurring wars, than the Temple would be standing, there would have been no resurrection of the dead, and Hymenaeus and Philetus' assertion of an already-occurred resurrection in conjunction with a destroyed Temple would be so laughable that Paul would yawn when he heard their claims. The way Jesus said "wars" and "rumors of wars" indicates that he meant that the disciples would hear of "WARS" that were actually happening, and "RUMORS OF WARS" that might be about to happen, but which in fact, had not yet happened. Third, it is simply not true that "news in the first century traveled very slowly." The Roman roads and well-developed commerce made sure that news traveled fairly quickly. For example, in the ancient and medieval world, it took about thirty days to travel by sea from Alexandria to Marseilles, a distance of 1500 miles. And that was under unfavorable circumstances (adverse winds, currents). The travel time was even quicker under favorable circumstances.[3] Therefore, an erroneous rumor that the Temple in Jerusalem had been destroyed at the most could have lasted only a month or so. A month is not long enough for Hymenaeus' and Philetus' gangrene to have spread far enough to cause Paul concern. Fourth, if erroneous news that the temple was still standing traveled so slowly that the Christians could be deceived into thinking it was destroyed, then that also means that correct news assuring them that the resurrection hadn't already come and that (by implication) the Temple was still standing, also traveled just as slowly. This means that Paul's good news that the resurrection hadn't already come could never counteract the false hymenaean error that the destruction of Jerusalem and the resurrection had already come.

    In short, there is no credible way to assert that early Christians could have been deceived for very long that a stupendous, world-shaking event such as the destruction of the Temple had occurred when in fact in had not. This means that if the early Christians tied together the resurrection of the dead and the coming in judgment on Jerusalem in the fashion the heretical preterists allege, and if the early Christians knew that the Temple was still standing, therefore the early Christians had no choice but to know that an A.D. 70 resurrection of the dead had not occurred. Therefore, they could potentially only have been seduced by Hymenaeus and Philetus, not about the TIMING of an A.D. 70 resurrection as erroneously alleged by hyperpreterists, but rather about the NATURE of the resurrection. It was possible for Hymenaeus to assert a gnostic, spiritual type of resurrection, or a partial Mat 27:52-53 physical resurrection, and have that false claim believed, because there was no simple way to refute that error, as, for example, by pointing to graves that were still full. On the contrary, if Hymenaeus and Philetus were impliedly and blasphemously asserting, as the hyperpreterists claim, that the Old Covenant was still in effect, then there would be a simple way for Paul to refute their error. He could have simply pointed to the still-standing Temple in Jerusalem. Therefore the hyperpreterist attempt to pin blasphemy on Hymenaeus and Philetus for messing with an alleged A.D. 70 resurrection simply will not work. Hymenaeus and Philetus were (by implication) blasphemously denying the physical resurrection at the end of time. There is absolutely no other explanation for Paul's outburst against them.

    Mr. Johnson brings up other scriptural arguments against a physical resurrection in his article which are not directly related to the topic of Hymenaeus and Philetus. In the interest of space, I will deal with but one of them, although they can all be easily refuted. The rest I intend to address in future articles. The one argument I choose to answer in this article is Mr. Johnson's interpretation of the Greek word mello used in Acts 24:15. I choose this particular argument because Acts 24:15 was a verse I was holding for future use offensively, and to my surprise Mr. Johnson attempts to use it as a strong point for his case. I also choose this argument to refute because it is so weak that even a dumb Business Administration professor can handle it.

    Mr. Johnson quotes Acts 24:15 triumphantly: "and I [Paul] have the same hope in God as these men [Pharisees], that there is (about to be) a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked." Paul made that statement before Felix as he was defending himself against charges brought by his opponents the Pharisees. Paul cleverly identified himself with one doctrine of the Pharisees, the resurrection of the dead, to blunt their charges against him. Mr. Johnson's argument is that Paul stated there was "ABOUT TO BE" a resurrection, which implied one coming shortly from the time spoke, i.e., A.D. 70.

    There are four problems with Mr. Johnson's interpretation, any one of which in isolation is devastating to his argument, and all four of which in conjunction with each other make his argument ludicrous. The first problem: the Greek word mello which Mr. Johnson translates as "about to be" does not consistently mean "about to be," as the so-called "consistent preterists" love to insist. There is another meaning of mello which means "of certainty, compulsion or necessity, to be certain to act." (Vines, Vol. 1, "About," 1981, p. 15.) Here are some other recognized authorities who give a meaning of "certainty" to mello in addition to the meaning "about to." For example, the Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament based on Semantic Domains by Johannes P. Louw and Eugene A. Nida Eds., (United Bible Societies, entry 71.36), state this as one of the definitions of mello: "to be inevitable, with respect to future developments - `must be, has to be,' citing Mt 17.12: `in the same way the Son of Man must also be mistreated by them.' The abridged Liddell and Scott, under its entry for mello, states this as the second definition of mello: "to express a certainty," citing classical Greek texts such as "it must be that I am hated by Zeus," and "I must have sinned against the immortals." Finally, we have the testimony of Bauer, Arndt, and Gingrich, who at the entry for mello, state that in Act 11:28 and Acts 24:15, where mello is used with the future infinitive, that the word "denotes certainty that an event will occur in the future." (BAG, 3rd edition) Mr. Johnson left out this clearly established meaning for mello in his article. An oversight, perhaps?

    In addition to Greek authorities, we may cite English translations. The NASB translates Acts 24:15 "there shall CERTAINLY be a resurrection." The New Century Version translates the verse: "...the hope that all people, good and bad, will SURELY be raised from the dead." Most versions translate mello in this verse as "there SHALL be a resurrection..." or "there WILL be a resurrection..." (KJV, NIV, Centenary Translation, New English Bible, Third Millennium Bible, New Revised Standard Version, Douay-Rheims, for example). These latter translations are ambiguous about whether the future resurrection is "ABOUT to come" as per the hyperpreterists, or "CERTAINLY to come." But the latter translation is certainly within the semantic domain of mello. It would take very much chutzpah for any hyperpreterist to claim that mello in Acts 24:15 definitely means that the resurrection was ABOUT to occur just after Paul spoke the words.

    I am sure a hyperpreterist would want to respond here, and assert that the translators' biases in favor of a physical resurrection impelled them to choose "certainty" over "about to." Well then, let us examine other Scriptures in which logic, not translator bias, compels a translation of mello as "certainty" and not "about to." For example, Acts 26:22, where Paul says to Agrippa that he was "stating nothing but what the Prophets and Moses said was GOING TO (mello) take place; that the Christ was to suffer..." One has to ask: when the Prophets and Moses prophesied that Jesus was "about to" (mello) suffer, just how close in time was the prophesying and the suffering? Doesn't it make much more sense to take mello in the sense that the Prophets prophesied that Jesus was CERTAINLY to suffer? Another example is Rom 5:14, in which Paul says "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was TO COME (mello)." I ask the reader: was Adam a type of Him who was ABOUT TO come, or was Adam a type of Him who was CERTAINLY to come? How soon did Jesus come after Adam?[4] Our conclusion can only be that mello does not always mean "about to," and therefore it is hyperpreterist presumption that takes mello in Acts 24:15 ("there is ABOUT TO be a resurrection") to refer to an imminent A.D. 70 resurrection.

    The second problem with Mr. Johnson's interpretation of Acts 24:15 is that Paul completely identifies himself with his Pharisee opponents when he says that he "had a hope in God, WHICH THESE MEN [THE PHARISEES] CHERISH THEMSELVES, that there shall certainly be a resurrection..." In other words, Paul says that what the Pharisees say about the resurrection, I, Paul, believe it to be true, also. Now, then: what did the Pharisees believe about the resurrection? Did they believe it to be a physical resurrection of the body? Yes, they did. It is well-known that they believed fervently in a physical resurrection, even to the extreme. They even believed that a part of the spine would be preserved out of which a new resurrection body would be preserved. Therefore, if the Pharisees believed in a physical resurrection, Paul also believed in a physical resurrection, not a gnostic spiritual resurrection like the heretical preterists erroneously assert.

    A hyperpreterist might assert here in defense that Paul identified publicly with the Pharisaical view of a physical resurrection while privately holding to a spiritual resurrection. The short answer to that is this. Were Paul to do this, he would either be stupid in promoting a physical resurrection in which he didn't believe, or he would be a hypocrite and a liar for saying falsely he agreed with the Pharisees just to save his neck. It is evident that Paul was using "resurrection" in the same sense as his audience. Everyone in the audience took "resurrection" to be physical, when Paul used the term, the audience would immediately take it to be physical. Therefore, when Paul used the term in an unqualified sense, he knew the term would be taken as "physical resurrection." To let his audience take the term as "physical resurrection" when Paul meant privately "spiritual resurrection" would mean that Paul was either a stupid fool in allowing that to happen, or a cowardly hypocrite.

    The third problem with Mr. Johnson's view of Acts 24:15 is related to the second. For when Paul identified himself publicly with the resurrection views of the Pharisees, he not only identified himself with the Pharisees' view of the NATURE of the resurrection, he also identified himself with the Pharisees view of the TIMING of the resurrection. Now, when did the Pharisees believe the resurrection was going to occur? Did they believe that it would occur in a few years when a judgment coming destroyed Jerusalem in accordance with the words of Jesus? Obviously not, they didn't even believe Jesus was the Messiah. They didn't believe the Messianic age had come. They didn't believe the end of the Old Testament age was upon them. In other words, they were blatant futurists. They believed the resurrection of the dead would occur at the end of time. And Paul identified himself with the Pharisees' beliefs about the resurrection.

    The fourth problem with Mr. Johnson's view of Acts 24:15 is that Paul states in that verse that he believed "that there shall certainly be a resurrection of both the righteous AND THE WICKED." The heretical preterists believe that the resurrection of the dead occurred in A.D. 70. This resurrection, according to Paul in Acts 24:15, included a resurrection of the wicked. So, on a hyperpreterist view, when and how did the resurrection of the wicked occur in A.D. 70?

    Let me conclude by restating my two major theses. First, orthodox Christians have no reasonable way to distinguish the beliefs of Hymenaeus and Philetus, condemned as blasphemers by Paul, from the present-day hymenaean heresy. Too many orthodox have swallowed the lie that there is an essential difference between current day hymenaeans and the ones of Paul's day.[5] Second, even granting the heretical preterists their false premise that the resurrection occurred in A.D. 70, their argument to deflect Paul's wrath from themselves, by distinguishing themselves from Hymenaeus and Philetus, is not even remotely reasonable.

    It may be premature to say that the house of God is burning, but without a doubt a fire has started. My question is simple: will we stand around and watch, or will be bring out the fire hoses?

    ENDNOTES

    [1]Many thanks to Dee Dee Warren for pointing out to me the begging-the-question fallacy used so often by the heretical preterists.

    [2]I realize that there is a textual problem with the "the" that stands before "resurrection." The editors of the Nestle text have the definite article, but they put the "the" in brackets, which means that there is a great deal of difficulty in establishing the correct reading. However, it is clear from the context that "the" is the correct translation. I have checked nineteen translations (NASB, ASV, NKJV, KJV, TMB, NLT, NRSV, RSV, Good News Translation, Douay-Rheims, NCV, God's Word Translation, WEB, The Message, The Bible in Basic English, Darby, Hebrew Names, Webster, Young's Literal) and seventeen of the nineteen translate the phrase as "THE resurrection." One, the Good News Translation, translates the phrase as "OUR resurrection," which, of course, is not helpful to the hyperpreterist cause. I could find only one translation, God's Word Translation, which translates the passage without the definite article: "people who have died have come back to life."

    Not only does the context lead the overwhelming majority of translators to translate the passage using the definite article, but logic also compels us to assume that when Paul referred to "resurrection" here, he meant "THE" resurrection. For if we assume an indefinite article, that "a" resurrection had already taken place, this would leave open the possibility that Hymenaeus and Philetus held that another resurrection was going to occur down the road. This doesn't make much sense on anybody's view, orthodox or hyperpreterist. On the orthodox view: why would Paul be so incensed, since Hymenaeus and Philetus would have left open the possibility for a future physical resurrection of the dead? On the heretical preterist view, why would Paul be so incensed, since Hymenaeus and Philetus would have left open the possibility for a future A.D. 70 resurrection associated with the coming of Jesus and the destruction of the Old Covenant? It simply makes no sense to leave the "the" out.

    [3]Lionel Casson, Ships and Seamanship in the Ancient World (Princeton, 1971) pp. 220 ff. Also see Fernand Braudel, The Mediterranean in the Time of Philip II (NY 1972) I, pp. 358 ff.

    [4]There is a faint hope for hyperpreterists who want to wriggle out of the dilemma presented by this verse. The Greek is ambiguous, and so "was to come" could theoretically be translated as "is to come." This would make the time referred to by mello to be the time to elapse between Paul's writing of the text, and Jesus' coming in A.D. 70. The context of the verse impels us to conclude otherwise, however. Seventeen of the nineteen translations I checked translate as "was to come," reflecting the common sense view that the context is talking about the time that elapsed between Adam and Christ, the "coming" being the First Advent, when the Second Adam fulfilled the type presented by the First Adam.

    [5]To disassociate themselves from Hymenaeus and Philetus, hyperpreterists have used other arguments than those used by Mr. Johnson in his "Response." However, these arguments are not nearly as clever as those used by Mr. Johnson. I intend to deal with some of these arguments in a future article.

    http://courses.coker.edu/dtrotter/contra/preterism/frame2.html

    Dr. Trotter is a Business professor at Coker College and can be contacted at [email protected] or (843)-383-8110



    This article was published on Planet Preterist
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  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    THE FORGERY OF MATTHEW 27:52b AND 53































































































































































































































































































  • writetoknow
    writetoknow

    I have posted a number of views regarding Matt 27:52-53 I could post all day long becaues there are that many interpretations of these passages. A logical mine would conclude that confusion rules the Christian community.


    Sadly, it has been confusion for some two thousands years. One must then ask isn't this the way it should be according to Christ own words? Has not peace been taken away from the earth over doctrinal teachings?


    Isn't it like a drug that envelops the hearts mind and souls of Christian. Blood letting to hold their uncomprising veiws of doctrine. Thus, treating the scriptures and violating the spirit of the scriptures as though life and death depended upon every letter of the verses. And yet confusion compounded upon confusion rules still more?


    Creating distrust for the whole word of God - it almost as if a divine plan has been set in motion to divide hearts and test the love of Christ. Violence rules in words - judging the faith of brothers condmning men made in the imagine of God.


    And yet the peace of God is to control Christian hearts and they are to trust God that He would never to mislead us. If a verbal fist fight encourages a Christian one must wonder is this what God is about - is my heart in tune with the God of all peace?


    If we lives for the fight then heaven is a dull palace for most Christain. One would think an intellengent person would have to see the bigger picture sooner of later that something more must exist something that elevates one above fleshly desires to prove oneself right in God.


    The constant grinding over doctrine is God mercy to gain some that reach for something higher that truely want faith in Christ Jesus that seek peace and presue it with all their hearts. However, many never judge themselves correctly so the grinding goes on. One must honestly ask themselves at some point

    "was it the truth I sought or the fight that excites?" And yet to search for truth without sincerely asking God for truth is no truth at all. Most search for truth under their own intellect refusing to understand the center piece of bible trurh.

    Many elevate the scriptures (New World Translation, etc.) and the accurate knowledge of as greater then the Word of God. Subsequently, putting their faith in the men that interpret the bible for them. Thus, when verses of the bible have to be revised as "new light" it causes distrust in God more often then the men doing the interpretation of scriptures.


    The artical belows helps a person to rethink their concept about the Word of God and why there is such confusion over the bible. It also helps one to understand why the early Christian had such faith in the "Word of God."


    I hope this information is as helpful to some as it has been in my own faith - opening a whole new way to look at the scriptures and the awesome position Christ Jesus holds in God's plan.


    The Scriptures and the Word of God

    Introduction

    The phrase the Word of God occurs nearly 50 times in the new testament, and is used times without number by Christians in books, sermons and ordinary speech. Do Christians use this phrase in the same sense as the Bible does? I believe NO. Does it matter? I believe YES.


    It is dangerous to use any phrase or word in a different sense from the Bible. Doing so generally springs from a wrong understanding of spiritual truth, which it in turn perpetuates and reinforces. For example people who use the word priest to mean an ordained member of some denomination, are generally blind to the true nature of priesthood. Those who continually use the word church to refer to a building or a denomination, usually have little idea of the true church of God.


    We cannot afford to adapt the meanings of words and phrases used in the Bible to suit our own traditions. It is pointless believing in the inspiration and authority of scripture and then using its words with meanings entirely different from their original.


    In common parlance the phrase the Word of God, or often simply the Word, means the Bible. This is standard terminology among almost all who believe in the inspiration and authority of the Bible.


    Firstly I hope to show that, in the Bible itself, the phrase the Word of God does not mean the Bible, but has a different meaning; then we will go on to explore the meaning and operation of the Word of God; after that we will seek to rediscover the right place and use of the Scriptures. May the Holy spirit give us understanding as we do so.


    'The Word of God' in Scripture

    Probably the nearest the Bible ever comes to calling itself the word of God is in Matthew chapter 15, with an almost identical passage in Mark chapter 7. It is worth quoting in full:


    Jesus said: 'Why do you yourselves transgress the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition? For God said, `Honour your father and mother', and `He who speaks evil of father or mother, let him be put to death.' But you say, 'Whoever shall say to his father or mother, 'Anything of mine by which you might have been helped has been given to God,' he is (allowed) not to honour his father or mother.' And thus you have invalidated the Word of God for the sake of your tradition.'


    At first sight we might construe the Word of God here as meaning the scriptures. However on examination we find that it refers specifically to what God actually said, his words to Moses for all Israel and the world, 'Honour your father and mother'. Jesus was not using the phrase as a general term for the scriptures as a whole.


    Against this one verse there are many passages where the Word of God cannot refer to the scriptures. For instance: 'They spoke the word of God with boldness' (Acts 4:31), 'They preached the word of God in the synagogues of Judaea' (Acts 13:5), 'It was necessary for the word of God to be spoken to you first' (Acts 13:46), '... to speak the word of God fearlessly' (Phil 1:14), 'the word of God is not bound' (2 Tim 2:9), and above all, 'The word became flesh and dwelt among us' (John 1:14) and 'his name is called the word of God' (Rev 19:13).


    In Acts 17:11, the word and the scriptures occur in the same verse: '... they received the word with all eagerness, daily examining the scriptures whether these things were so'. The `word' here cannot possibly mean the `scriptures'.


    The Hebrew Old Testament is divided into three parts, the Law (Torah), the Prophets (Neviim) and the Writings (Ktuvim). When the new testament writers speak of the old testament they use the word Writings (Greek graphai - usually translated Scriptures) as a general term for the whole. They also refer specifically to the Law and the Prophets. They never use the phrase the word of God.


    In the old testament Psalm 119 might appear to support the idea of referring to the scriptures as the word of God. Nearly all its 176 verses contain one of the following words: law, testimonies, ways, precepts, statutes, commandments, judgements, word, ordinances. This lends a little support to equating the `word' with law, testimonies, commandments etc, but hardly enough to justify referring to the whole Bible as the word of God.


    To summarize: the Bible refers to itself as the scriptures, the holy scriptures, or in part the law or the prophets, but it does not call itself the `word of God'. In its pages that phrase has a different meaning. The Bible does regard itself as verbally inspired by the Holy Spirit and having absolute divine authority, and let me stress that I am not in any way questioning those truths.


    True Meaning of 'the Word'

    If the Word of God does not mean the Bible, what does it mean?


    Much the greatest Word that God has ever spoken is his Son. Jesus is the supreme manifestation of the word of God. The Apostle John began his gospel: 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.' Later in the same chapter we read: 'And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.' Revelation 19:13 gives Jesus the same title: 'His name is called the Word of God'. Hebrews 1:1 and 11:3 have the same implication: 'God ... in these last days has spoken to us in his Son ... through whom also he made the world'; 'By faith we understand that the world was prepared by the word of God'.


    Jesus is the supreme and central manifestation of the word of God. All other manifestations of that word relate to him. The phrase the word of God in Scripture is also used to describe anything that God said to anyone or through anyone. For example, 'the word of the Lord came to Moses', 'the word of God came to John in the wilderness', 'the word of the Lord to Israel through Malachi' or 'the words of Amos which he saw concerning Israel'.


    When God speaks, it is the word of God. In the old testament God spoke directly to the prophets. He spoke to others through them. He also spoke through events in the lives of individuals and the nation. This state of affairs continued essentially until Pentecost, when the Spirit was poured out upon all flesh. The circle of those to whom he wants to speak directly is extended to all who believe. No longer is it only the few prophets and leaders, but it is the common man.


    It is contrary not only to scripture, but also to nature and reason, to believe that God wants to use a book as his primary method of communication. Writing is in general a bad way of communicating, as it is static and inflexible. For most purposes speaking is much better, and I should think ninety per cent of human communication is done that way. Writing is only better when you want a permanent record. It combats the failing of human memory and removes grounds for argument.


    Several further factors confirm the Bible is not God's primary method of communication. Only a minority of the human race, and not even all Christians, own Bibles. Before the last century's great increase in literacy the number was much smaller. Before the invention of printing and the reformation privately owned Bibles were unimagined and all Bibles were in Latin anyway. Even for the privileged few that own Bibles today there are further problems. Our Bibles are not the original inspired words, but very fallible translations. Even the best scholar cannot begin to know an ancient language as well as a child speaks its native tongue, because he has only a fraction of the study material. The scholar has a limited number of ancient manuscripts, while the child is surrounded by a ceaseless flow of speech. Even if scholars knew Greek and Hebrew as well as we know English, it is still impossible to translate exactly from one language to another. God has placed limitations on the wonderful book he has given us because he has something better and greater.


    Let me stress again, God's primary way of speaking to man is directly through the Holy Spirit to those who have ears to hear, and then through them to others.


    When apostles and prophets in Scripture spoke under the inspiration of the Holy spirit, God was speaking through them. What they said was the word of God to their hearers. When a man or woman today speaks under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, that also is the word of God for whomsoever God intends it. When God speaks a message directly to our hearts by the Holy Spirit, that also is his word.


    When Satan quoted scripture to Jesus in the wilderness, it was not the word of God. It was the word of Satan. When scripture is quoted today, it is sometimes the word of God to those who hear it. Sometimes it is just the word of man, and sometimes even the word of Satan.


    Well-known verses in a new light.

    The Word of God then is Jesus himself, and also whatever God says. With this understanding, we will see many passages of scripture in a new light. Some of these I will consider, and others you may wish to search out with a concordance.


    'Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that

    proceeds from the mouth of God' (Math 4:4).

    Primarily this verse applies to Jesus. How perfectly it harmonises with his own words, 'I am the bread of life ... I am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he shall live ...' and 'Give us this day our daily bread'. Jesus is the spiritual food on which we live. When God speaks to us we receive life. 'He that has the Son has the life; he that does not have the Son does not have the life' (1 John 5:12).


    A popular series of Bible-reading notes here in the UK is entitled 'Daily Bread'. The implication in the title is that the Bible is our spiritual food. This thinking is the logical development of calling the Bible the word of God. Many people, alas, read the Bible faithfully every day, but are not fed, because they have never learnt to feed on Jesus. He himself said, 'You search the Scriptures, because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is these that bear witness of me; and you will not come to me, that you may have life' (John 5: 39,40). The Pharisees were great readers and teachers of the Bible, but when Jesus said, 'Unless you eat my flesh and drink my blood, you have no life in you', they were bitterly offended. To read and study the Bible is good. To put the Bible in the place of Jesus is idolatry.


    Secondarily this verse applies to any word spoken under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Those who hear are fed, and their food has been the word of God.


    Food is vital for growth. God has provided the five ministries described in Ephesians 4 for the building up of the body of Christ. A spiritual child needs apostles, prophets, pastors, teachers and evangelists to feed him with the word of God and build him up to maturity. However, as with a child in the natural, there should be a progression from milk to solid food through to the time when he becomes mature and is able to feed himself.


    'The word of God is alive and powerful and sharper than any two-edged sword' (Heb 4:12).

    Let us reconsider this verse. Firstly Jesus is alive and all power is given to him. We read in Revelation that 'out of his mouth goes a sharp two-edged sword'. Nothing can stand before him. Secondly when we speak under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit our words will be alive and powerful and will enter people's hearts. Quoting scripture to people is no substitute for speaking the word of God.


    'My word ... will not return to me empty, but it will accomplish that which I please ...' (Isaiah 55:11).

    This verse was wonderfully fulfilled in Jesus. He left the Father's presence to take the form of man and suffer and die and rise again. He did not return empty-handed to the Father, but brought with him a great multitude of brethren. He accomplished every purpose for which God had sent him.


    When a man or woman today speaks the word of God, we may be sure that the words will not be in vain, but will accomplish the purposes of God. A few faithful servants who have learnt to speak the word of God will accomplish far more than an army of workers who only know how to distribute Bibles and Christian literature. Such work is good, but to speak the word of God is of an altogether higher order.


    'Born again ... by the word of God which lives and abides for ever' (1 Pet 1:23).

    When Gabriel spoke the word of God to Mary, Jesus was born in her. The new birth takes place when Jesus, the Word of God, is born in us. God generally uses a human messenger to speak the word that brings about the new birth. This is the special ministry of an evangelist. The Ethiopian eunuch was puzzling his head over Isaiah when the Holy Spirit sent Philip to him. Philip 'preached Jesus to him', and he believed. To a few people the word of God that brings new life comes directly without any human intermediary, but we should not expect these exceptions to become the rule.


    'The sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God' (Ephesians 6:17).

    The sword of the spirit is described here as part of the spiritual armour. On the basis of this verse, some people believe you should always carry a Bible with you as your spiritual weapon. Others feel that texts written up all over their house will help to protect them from the powers of evil. This attitude is based more on superstition and fear than on the truth. The true sword of the spirit is the inspired word of God upon our lips. It is an offensive weapon before which the powers of evil will not be able to stand. When Jesus spoke, all the powers of darkness were put to confusion and flight. When we learn to speak as he did, we will see similar results.


    Idolatry

    It is enlightening to compare the Catholic attitude to Mary with the Protestant attitude to the Bible. Mary had a unique and wonderful place and privilege in God's plan of salvation. Through her Jesus came into the world and in a sense without her he could never have come in the flesh. However to place her beside Jesus and worship her and look to her for mediation is idolatry. These things belong only to Jesus. The Bible also is unique among books and definitely above them in a way that Mary was not above other women. However the fact remains that if we take the titles and place of Jesus and ascribe them to the Bible we are equally guilty of idolatry. As with any other form of idolatry, this will be a block to our spiritual growth and progress. We must discover the place and purpose of the Scriptures in God's plan and use them rightly if we want to walk in the truth and grow in God.


    The Scriptures

    Having given some consideration to the place and function of the Word of God in our lives, we must now think about the place of the Scriptures. Paul sums up this subject in his second letter to Timothy: 'All scripture (writings) inspired by God is profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction and for (child) training in righteousness, that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work ' (3:16,17). These verses deserve more careful consideration than they usually receive.


    Paul here views the scriptures as the man of God's toolbox. They are part of his equipment for his ministry to others. It is significant that Paul wrote this letter not to a group of believers, but to an individual leader. Nowhere did he exhort believers generally to study the scriptures, though he often exhorted them to pray. Timothy had the task of ministering to others and his knowledge of the scriptures would have been of great benefit in the work committed to him.


    Our verses here tell us of four uses of the Scriptures, which we will now consider in turn.


    1. The Scriptures are profitable for teaching. Timothy's task was not to teach the Bible. The Pharisees were well able to do that. Rather it was to impart a revelation and understanding of God to those under his care. He should use the Scriptures as a medium through which he could impart spiritual truth. If God calls you or me to share with others what we have received from him, then the Bible is a language we can use to do so.


    The letter to the Hebrews gives us a clear illustration of the use of Scripture for teaching. The writer takes passage after passage and person after person from the Old Testament to illustrate the superiority of the new covenant to the old, and the position of Jesus far above all others. Paul also makes extensive use of the scriptures in Romans and Galatians to illustrate and prove the revelations he had received from God. As far as we know, Jesus only used the scriptures in this way when he opened them up to two disciples on the Emmaus road after his resurrection.


    2. The Scriptures are profitable for reproof. We see this most clearly illustrated when Jesus met Satan in the wilderness. He met and countered each temptation with a quotation from the Old Testament. The Scriptures by their nature are written and immutable and can therefore constitute a court of appeal. Satan could question whether Jesus was the Son of God, and whether he was led by the Holy Spirit. He could not argue with what was written.


    3. The Scriptures are also profitable for correction. When Jesus corrected the erroneous ideas of his opponents, he frequently used the Scriptures. He quoted David to correct the Pharisaic strictness on the Sabbath. He showed the Sadducees from the Old Testament that resurrection took place. Paul's letter to the Galatians is similarly a letter of correction. He establishes justification by faith by the example of Abraham. As with reproof, the Scriptures give a solid legal ground to correction. Special leadings and revelations will and must always be open to question. The Scriptures provide a fixed objective standard against which they can be tested.


    4. The Scriptures are profitable for child training in righteousness. The Greek word here used is paideia, an abstract noun from the word pais (meaning a child), and its primary meaning is child training. The previous verse to those we are considering reads: 'from childhood you have known the sacred writings, which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.' Timothy, to whom these words were written, was the third generation in a godly family. Paul speaks of the sincere faith of his grandmother Lois and his mother Eunice. Perhaps it was these two who faithfully taught him from the scriptures and so prepared his mind first for salvation and subsequently for the wide ministry he was to receive. Timothy became a constant companion of Paul. Six of Paul's letters have Timothy's name as co-writer. Some people believe that Timothy wrote the letter to the Hebrews. He became a significant leader in the early church, and carried on Paul's work in Ephesus.


    We see interesting parallels in the prophet Jeremiah. His father, Hilkiah the priest, was the man who found a book of the law in Josiah's day. Both Jeremiah and Timothy were called to minister in their youth. Perhaps the link between them is scripture-loving parents who taught them from childhood. Moses, by contrast, grew up in a palace with 'all the wisdom of the Egyptians'. He had to spend forty years in the wilderness before he began his ministry at the age of eighty!


    I believe then that Christian parents should teach their children from the scriptures. They must learn the law of God. The scriptures will not save them, but will give them the wisdom that leads to salvation. Paul elsewhere stated that 'the law is a schoolmaster to bring us to Christ'.


    I do not want to imply that training in righteousness is only for children. People who are spiritual children also need teaching until they have become spiritually mature. However I believe I have already covered this aspect.


    Head or Heart?

    Some people pray, 'Lord I understand in my head; please move it all down into my heart'. That is the reverse of God's way. Paul wrote to the Colossians, 'Let the word of Christ richly dwell in you ...' (3:16) and to the Ephesians '... that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith' (3:17). That will happen if we receive his word from faithful ministers who have been taught by him, and then learn to commune with our Heavenly Father. As his word increasingly dwells in our hearts, the scriptures will begin to open up to us, and our minds will receive understanding. Jesus communed with his Father from childhood. When he was twelve, the teachers in the temple were amazed at his understanding. We must turn to God if we want to understand the Bible, not turn to the Bible if we want to understand God. You will never understand the book if you do not have the mind of its author.


    Commands and Promises

    To summarize what I have been saying: God's primary method of speaking to people is not through Bible reading. It is initially through his ministers (apostles, prophets, pastors, teachers, and evangelists) and then increasingly through the Holy Spirit directly.


    I want now to consider two particular ways in which God speaks. Throughout the scriptures God gave commands and instructions to individuals and groups of people. He also made covenants and promises, which were frequently conditional on obedience to commands. Some commands such as 'Love your neighbour', are very general. Others such as 'Take your shoes off your feet', are very specific. Promises in the Bible exhibit the same range. 'All things you ask in prayer, believing, you will receive' is general. 'I will bring you back to this land' is specific.


    Many people believe and teach that all these commands and promises - or at least the more general ones - are for us today. Whole churches and denominations are built on this approach to the scriptures. However again we find that there is very little backing for it in the scriptures themselves. Certainly no one ever tried to obey a specific command or claim a specific promise that was given to someone else. The ten commandments and a few other general commands and promises from the old testament are quoted in the new. However the general principle is, as we have seen, that God speaks by the Holy Spirit. If he has not spoken to us by the Holy Spirit, we will have neither the power to carry out any commands, nor the faith to receive any promises.


    To seek to obey commands that were given to other people at other times, and not to you personally will lead you into bondage, frustration and failure. Equally to seek to claim promises that were made to others will lead you to doubt God, or live with a sense of frustration that you are missing the mark because nothing seems to work out for you. It worked for other people; why doesn't it work for me?


    The fundamental reason is that you cannot receive either commands or promises through your mind. You must receive them deep in your spirit. You will then find their confirming echo as you read similar commands and promises in the pages of the Bible.


    Conclusion

    How may we now summarize this message? The Scriptures and the Word of God are separate and should not be confused. Each has a different function. The Word of God is greater and was there in the beginning with God. The Scriptures must not take its (his) place. Good things in the wrong place can become evil things, and blessings turn to curses. Many an evil thing has been done by people who knew much of the Bible, but nothing of the Word of God. Let us hear again the heart-cry of Jesus, 'You search the Scriptures, because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is these that bear witness of me; and you will not come to me, that you may have life'. Let us find the true meaning of the Word of God and give it its rightful place in our lives. Let us also give to the Scriptures their rightful place - the place they give themselves, the place Jesus and the early apostles gave them, and the place given to them by the word of God in our hearts.


    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------


    Postscript

    I want to append here a brief survey of old testament quotations by Jesus and the early church. This may prove a stimulus to further study.


    Some people may feel this cannot guide us in our approach to the Bible as the new testament was not yet written at the time. My personal feeling is that the Bible is one book, and we should have one approach for both parts of it. This approach should parallel that which we see in the pages of the new testament.


    Jesus, as we have seen already, quoted the scriptures extensively in confrontations with the Pharisees, but scarcely at all when teaching the multitudes or his disciples. In the sermon on the mount all old testament quotations are for contrast with his own teaching. His last discourse in John's gospel does not contain a single quote. It is only on the Emmaus road after his resurrection that we find him opening the scriptures to the two disciples.


    Of the gospel writers Matthew quotes very extensively to illustrate the fulfilment of scripture. Mark and Luke do so too, but less. John scarcely does at all.


    In the book of Acts, Peter, Stephen and Paul all quote extensively in their preaching. Often their objective is to show from the scriptures that Jesus is the promised Messiah.


    Paul's letters vary in the extent to which he makes use of scripture. Romans and Galatians are at one end of the scale with a lot of quotation. Colossians and Thessalonians are at the other with none.


    Hebrews, being written to the Jews, naturally has more quotations than any other new testament book. Peter quotes a lot; James quotes sparingly; and John in his letters not at all. John was almost certainly the latest of the new testament writers. Jude, interestingly, makes two quotations from books that are not part of what we regard as the Bible (The Assumption of Moses and The Prophecy of Enoch). He makes no quotations from the books that we call the old testament.


    The book of Revelation has some quotes and many visions similar to those of Daniel, Ezekiel, Zechariah and others.


    The general picture is one of wide variation. No doubt this reflects the differing characters and background both of the writers and the readers, and the nature of the message being written or reported. All this of course was subject to the leading and inspiration of the Holy Spirit.


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  • tula
    tula

    several issues here. Maybe they deserve a thread of their own. If you think so, then you can start the new thread. But here goes with first issue:

    write to know says: I don’t know whether that means they actually appeared in the physical form or whether they appeared in some form where you could appear or disappear. And if that’s the case, they would be in some kind of glorified form.

    matthew 17:2 describes the transfiguration:

    2 There he was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and his clothes became as white as the light. (so now, this is like something from x-files)

    yet, immediately after he arose from the grave, this is his appearance: John 20:15-16

    "They have taken my Lord away," she said, "and I don't know where they have put him." 14 At this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing there, but she did not realize that it was Jesus.

    15 "Woman," he said, "why are you crying? Who is it you are looking for?"
    Thinking he was the gardener, she said, "Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have put him, and I will get him."

    (and now...what's this? Jesus in overalls? certainly his appearance is very much altered or disguised. Does she recognize him from his voice? Or a mannerism? Or something x-file-ish he does?)

    16 Jesus said to her, "Mary."
    She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, "Rabboni!" (which means Teacher).

    (now, Mark 16:12...still a different appearance.)

    9 When Jesus rose early on the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had driven seven demons. 10 She went and told those who had been with him and who were mourning and weeping. 11 When they heard that Jesus was alive and that she had seen him, they did not believe it.

    12 Afterward Jesus appeared in a different form to two of them while they were walking in the country . 13 These returned and reported it to the rest; but they did not believe them either.

    This also raises a new question. I think JWs have been told that they will be resurrected in the same body----only it will be perfected, and also told there will be no trouble recognizing one another. So how can this be validated? Even Jesus was not recognizable in resurrection!

  • tula
    tula
    He takes an event of the apocalyptic future and pulls it back into the past in order to create a flash-forward effect in his narrative. Matthew 27:52-53 is best understood as a flash forward to the apocalyptic future.

    Sorry, I cannot buy this.

    Just as many people think intended futuristic passages actually refer to the past seize of 70 A.D. and excuse the passages as "already happened", I see both events (matthew 27:52 included) as FORESHADOWING. I see those events as actually having happened in the past, but, as history does have a way of repeating itself, I see those passages as foreshadowing future events on a grander scale.

    If the first resurrection has already occurred at the event of Jesus' death, then the next and greater resurrection to come is for the "just and the unjust".

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