To me the most blatant inconsistency of the WT (on this topic) consists in requiring Christian baptism from those to whom it denies the Eucharist.
In Pauline literature (compare Romans 6 and 1 Corinthians 10--11) the symbolism of the two "sacraments" is basically the same (sharing in Christ's death and his resurrected body), and in early Christianity at large they applied to the same people.
The WT would be more consistent (if not scriptural) if they at least qualified the baptism of the "non-anointed" differently (say, as John's "baptism of repentance"). One consequence of which might be the (embarrassing) need for a new (properly "Christian") baptism if one "switches hopes" (cf. Acts 19). But presenting the baptism of both "anointed" and "non-anointed" as identical in form and symbol leads to a logical dead end: one baptism, two hopes (contrast Ephesians 4:4ff)?