I have never until a few days ago been able to reconcile the 70 year prophecy with the 587/6 BCE date for Jerusalems destruction. Although a post was about this in a previous thread by A@G , i would like to explore this more.
When the 70 years are applied to Babylonian rule, rather than the Jewish exile everything seems to make sense.
To ellaborate for those who haven't come across it, this is how 587/6 does match the 70 year prophecy.
I hope A@G doesn't mind but i have cut and paste his post:-
The 587 date does match the Bible...
(Jeremiah 25:11) 11 And all this land must become a devastated place, an object of astonishment, and these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years."’The 1st time the Bible mentions the 70 years period it mentions that Babylon would dominate other nations for 70 years. It does not say here that the Jews would be in Babylon for 70 years, although this is an idea in Jeremriah 29:10 (NWT):
(Jeremiah 29:10) 10 "For this is what Jehovah has said, ‘In accord with the fulfilling of seventy years at Babylon I shall turn my attention to YOU people, and I will establish toward YOU my good word in bringing YOU back to this place.’However, all other Bible translations that I know of translate use the word "for" instead of "at"...
i.e.:NIV: 10 This is what the LORD says: "When seventy years are completed for Babylon, I will come to you and fulfill my gracious promise to bring you back to this place.This translation harmonizes with Jer 25:11 with the idea that 70 years refers to Babylon's time, not the Jews exile.
Babylon's domination ended in 539BCE, a date agreed upon by the WTS. This would mean that the 70 years period would have to start in 609BCE. What happened in that year? Babylon attacked Assyria in 609 BCE.
This would harmonize with both secular history and the Bible. Josephus also mentions that the Jews were in Babylon for 50 years, not 70. So it all coincides.
In 609BCE Babylon attacked the last stronghold of Assyria with the capture of Harran. Ashur-uballit the last Assyrian king then disappears from history. This then meant "nations will have to serve the King of Babylon"(Jer25:11)
A criticism of this application is that Jer 25:1 places the year of this prophecy in 605BCE when it states," in the first year of Nebuchadnezzar". Some use this as saying that it must therefore not be a prophecy as 4 years have already passed. However even if this is written 4 years into the 70 years prophecy as v1 would suggest, i still fail to see how this is not prophecy.
Upon further research i have come across this link, clearly showing a Babylonian rule of 70 years.
http://www.science.co.il/Maps-Near-East-Empires.asp
When the application of the 70 year prophecy is placed with Babylonian rule, rather than Jewish exile it all seems to make sense to me.
I would appreciate other thoughts and comments on this.
Paul