Hi farkel
I am not because john 1:1 doesn't work like that. in the end in that context we have 3 theos's and 2 refering to the true God have the ho theos with definite article and the one refering to the word is without the definite article. this is significant and means John was making a distinction between The God and the word.
this scripture is a qualative term at best and never identifies the word as The God.
You see I did look at the greek and you cannot put a definite article were one doesn't exist in the greek, even if you can pretend it is there in the English.
Reniaa