I have noted in the past few months or years that Christians, when faced the nearly insurmountable evidence that the Garden of Eden events are improbable if not impossible [I refer to fossil evidence that supports hominid existence on this planet perhaps millions of years ago, as example] to overcome, that the 'fall back' position is often that the Garden of Eden account is just allegory, not literal.
But it occurs to me that if it is just allegorical, then there is no specific event to mark the 'fall of man' and 'original sin'. Without that, what purpose is served with the idea of a 'ransom' in which 'the last Adam' overcomes the sin of Adam in the garden. Why would NT writers refer to the events as if literal if they are just allegory? Are then Jesus and Paul and others who referred to the GoE liars? Or was the 'son of god' so poorly informed as to the actual events that he just went along with the traditions handed down to his parents?
Yet there seems little defense for the GoE being literal at all with the amount of evidence contrary to the idea that man has been here only as long as Bible chronology allows.
I am sure I have not originated this idea, but I cannot recall it being discussed specifically.
Wouldn't an allegorical Eden void the Ransom? No original sin - no need to make atonement for mankind's fall from favor. To me, this is a can of worms opened by Christians that cannot be effectively argued.
Discuss away. I am interested in seeing the gymnastics.
Jeff