Can the Bible be proved wrong? (page 4)

wobble

The supposed creation of Adam is given to us using Bible generations and ages. The supposed time from Adam until the flood can therefore be calcualted.

No such flood happened at that time, so the Bible chronology is bunk.

Nothing in the Bible is other than we would expect from the writers at the time they wrote, do you not think that one thing would be in there that only God would have known so as to put His imprimatur on it ?

The medical/hygeine advice in the Law is not unusual in view of the time the Pentateuch was probably recorded.

The biggest problem the Bible has, as has been shown by our truly great poster Terry, it has no provenance.

All we have is a book that was cobbled together by the Catholic Church in the late 300's A.D , that was derived from copies of copies of copies.

We have no way of knowing what the original authors wrote, we have no way of knowing what writings, perhaps contradicting the Bible , were rejected and parhaps destroyed by the Church, because they did not suit their very politicised agenda.

Do you not think that if God had a hand in producing this book, he would not be careful to preserve some resounding proof as to its veracity and its divine approval ?

No such proofs exist.

wobble

Sorry, double post, this old steam driven computer is knackered, like its owner !

cantleave

It's great post wobble - so it deserves "repetition for emphasis" (sorry!!!)

PSacramento

Erm, hate to state the obvious but....

If the lifespans are incorrect, then the Bible is (of course) proved wrong.

About those lifespans, yes.

If the lifespans are correct, then the Bible is proved wrong because then you can date the events in it, and as noted above, the flood could not have happened according to the Bible's chronology.

Which flood? there were MANY floods in that area as shown by the many accounts of floods in that area.

Oh, and how do you tell what in the Bible is "symbolism" and what isn't? Do you have a special decoder ring? If so could you send me one?

Well, let me see..How can I tell what is symbolisim and what isn't? hmmmm probably the same way I can tell when reading any other book.

Cuz, like, for example, Bible texts which appear to support the trinity are "literal" for Baptists but "symbolic" for JWs, while Bible texts which appear to contradict the trinity are "symbolic" for Baptists but "literal" for JWs.

A valid point.

PSacramento

The supposed creation of Adam is given to us using Bible generations and ages. The supposed time from Adam until the flood can therefore be calcualted.

If we knwo WHEN Adam was created, do you? I don't.

No such flood happened at that time, so the Bible chronology is bunk.

There is no bible chronology.

Nothing in the Bible is other than we would expect from the writers at the time they wrote, do you not think that one thing would be in there that only God would have known so as to put His imprimatur on it ?

You are correct in thinking that all the bible is is what was written there by those that wrote it at the time of writing.

The medical/hygeine advice in the Law is not unusual in view of the time the Pentateuch was probably recorded.

Anyone that calls shrimp and abomination is mad I tell you, MAD !!!

The biggest problem the Bible has, as has been shown by our truly great poster Terry, it has no provenance.

All we have is a book that was cobbled together by the Catholic Church in the late 300's A.D , that was derived from copies of copies of copies.

Pretty much like every other book we have about ANYTHING historical.

We have no way of knowing what the original authors wrote, we have no way of knowing what writings, perhaps contradicting the Bible , were rejected and parhaps destroyed by the Church, because they did not suit their very politicised agenda.

Like everything else we have historical.

Do you not think that if God had a hand in producing this book, he would not be careful to preserve some resounding proof as to its veracity and its divine approval ?

I think that Man put to letter what was an oral tradition given to them by God and his messengers and they did it as best they could and at times, for reasons that were less than noble and if they had gotten it 100% right that there would have been no need for Jesus to come.

Falliable MAN can NOT produce an infalliable work.

No such proofs exist.

You mean proof texts?

Lore

No dates in the bible, no where will you find a date for the flood.

2 years after the flood Noahs son Sham had a child name Arthropod (or something like that)

35 years later Athropod had a son named Salah

When Salah was 30 he had a son named Eber

34 years later Eber had a kid named Peleg

And the list goes on and on until it gets to gets to Abraham. Basically if you add all this up there's a grand total of 350ish years between the flood and Abrahams birth.

According to both Acts and Genesis, Abraham was 75 when god promised him something vague which we don't care about right now.

Then Paul said that it was 430 years after this promise that the nation of Israel left Egypt.

So right there we can figure out that it was about 855 years between the flood and the exodus.

According to Paul in his letter to the Galatians, 480 years after the israelites left egypt, solomon started building the temple.

And since this, the building of the temple, is the first REAL event we have a date on http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solomon's_Temple

based on actual history, solomon started building the temple around 900BC

This all means, that the flood uccured 1335 years before the founding of the Temple in 900BC. THUS it uccured in 2235 BC

Which is about 4.5k years ago.

(in regards to the age of the earth) No dates in the bible.

Using a similar technique we can calculate the time between Adam's creation and the Flood. Then subtract 5 days from Adams creation and we have the age of the earth according to the bible.

(in regards to the 7 year famine) All over the world?

Genesis 41:57 "And all the countries came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph, because the famine was severe in all the world." NIV
Genesis 41:57 " And people from all around came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph because the famine was severe throughout the world. " NLT
Genesis 41:57 "Moreover, all the earth came to Egypt to Joseph to buy grain, because the famine was severe over all the earth." ESV Genesis 41:57 " The people of all the earth came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph, because the famine was severe in all the earth. " NAS Genesis 41:57 " And all countries came into Egypt to Joseph for to buy [corn]; because that the famine was [so] sore in all lands. " KJV

The word used in this verse for 'all' = kol
The word used in this verse for 'earth' = 'erets

(in regards to the end of the world 'soon' 2.5k years ago) No dates given and actual warnings against trying to guess a date.

Longer than 2000 years does not equal soon, therefore it already failed.

AK - Jeff

What do you mean by the question?

Are you suggesting that metaphysically God had qualified the actual persons who penned the Bible with sacred revelation of 'truth', therefore rendering it inerrent, literally his Word as if he penned it himself?

That the Bible was actually revealed by Holy Spirit, by interaction with the mind of God literally?

And it was this direct transmittal of God's thoughts and counsel that had influenced a Writ above error?

Or do you just suggest that the Bible is, although 'imperfect by imperfect men' still sterling in its content to the point that historically, prophetically it cannot be shown to be inaccurate on any significant level?

I would answer all the above with a resounding NO!

Jeff

The Quiet One

Nobody's mentioned where the gospels contradict each other.. As for knowlege man wouldn't have, how about the description of mountains being formed in Psalm 104:6, 8? And regarding the Flood, Jesus himself referred to it in Matthew 24:37-39 (gospels not disproved by anyone yet), and how can anyone state there has never been a worldwide flood when you consider the amount of water frozen in glaciers and the north/south pole? How do we know that glaciers during the 'ice ages' that shaped the earth were not caused by a great amount of water?

The Quiet One

Nobody's mentioned where the gospels contradict each other.. As for knowlege man wouldn't have, how about the description of mountains being formed in Psalm 104:6, 8? And regarding the Flood, Jesus himself referred to it in Matthew 24:37-39 (gospels not disproved by anyone yet), and how can anyone state there has never been a worldwide flood when you consider the amount of water frozen in glaciers and the north/south pole? How do we know that glaciers during the 'ice ages' that shaped the earth were not caused by a great amount of water?

Sapphy

Just echoing Jeff's question, do you mean "God approves of the general principles in the Bible and gave some ancient men the idea to write it down" or do you mean "the Bible is the infalliable word of God period"?

Can the Bible be proved wrong?

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