So you slapped an Elders wife N.drew . . . good for you! . . . the law of probabilities tells me she probably deserved it.
And don't worry about consequences . . . some things are worth doing a little time for.
Atheists..... throwing the baby out with the bath water ?
by snare&racket 403 Replies latest jw friends
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N.drew
I did not think she deserved it. I did it to get her attention.
What I said was worse than the slap. I think I said "You make me so crazy" which is not nice.
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sizemik
Oh I see . . . would not a simple "hello" be sufficient?
I've tried blaming others for my madness . . . it doesn't work . . . they just think you're mad. Ring theory.
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N.drew
Hi Sizemik! I think I had already said hello. We were in field service.
But I am sure it was not a "bad witness" as no one but witnesses witnessed it.
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ziddina
"I was just wondering why you didn't comment on those? So the a, b, and the three lines after that are from my post TO you just on this same page? Did you not read it?..." tec, page 18, post #7784
And....
" Does it make any sense at all that the writer of revelations was referring to any other book than the book of revelations? There was no bible at the time, so he could not have been referring to the bible...."
Ah, again, SERiously?????? NO "bible at the time"....??????
I think that you eventually answer that question, yourself...
"Why in the world would you warn people against something that could not be done in the first place? (adding or taking away from the words)..."
WHERE do you get the idea that "adding to" and "taking away" COULDN'T happen??? Oh, that's right - you think some Johnny-come-lately Bronze-Age Middle-Eastern male volcano "god" was going to magically "protect" those words....
The history of the authorship of the bible - and its inherent contradictions - rather demonstrates that "he" couldn't...
"Was Paul referring to his own letters? Was Paul referring to books in a bible that did not yet exist? How does that make any sense?
Ah, I think you yourself eventually answer THAT question, too...
Here...
"Or was he referring to what he considered scripture in his day?..."
Ah, yeah.....
The entire old testament was in existence by Paul's time... And perhaps the four Gospels, too...
As to this comment....
"Was he referring to Jeremiah 8:8 which states that the lying pen of the scribes has handled the law falsely?..."
Let's look at the context of that scripture - and the historical setting...
Interesting... From Wikipedia.... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Jeremiah
It seems that there are actually two versions of the book of Jeremiah, with differences between the two...
From the Wikipedia article...
"The Septuagint (Greek or 'LXX') version of this book is, in its arrangement and in other particulars, different from the Masoretic Hebrew. The Septuagint does not include 10:6-8; 25:14; 27:19-22; 29:16-20; 33:14-26; 39:4-13; 52:2, 3, 15, 28-30, etc. In all, about 2,700 words found in the Masoretic text are not found in the Septuagint. ..."
Well, it seems THAT book wasn't copied accurately... The Septuagint version is the older version, as of archaeological discoveries to this date...
Skimming the first chapters of the book of Jeremiah...
Hah!! I can see how people who believe in the eternal existence of the soul would be fond of the first verses in Jeremiah...
Well, well, well.... Jeremiah 1: 12 states:
"The Lord said to me, "you have seen correctly, for I watch over My word to accomplish it."
Sounds like another claim that Hebrew scripture is "divine" and therefore infallible...
Anyway, ploughing onwards...
Quick re-telling of the exodus and their abandonment of "him"... Grumbling about the Israelites worshipping other gods... Odd illustration in Jeremiah 3:1
"If a man divorces his wife and she leaves him to marry another, can he ever returrn to her? Wouldn't such a land become totally defiled?..."
Ah, yeah... That illustrates my point about the bible writers believing that men planted the "seed" within women, the "seed" being the fully-formed infant human, and that the woman was nothing more than a "fertile field" in which the "seed"- baby - grew...
Oh, yeah.... Inaccurate AND misogynistic, all at once...
Hilltop worship... Tree worship... Return to the "true" worship... Gonna be judged... "You'll" be sorry... Weep and wail.... More judgments... Threatened siege...
Okay, chapter 8 - context... bones of the kings, priests, officials, all strewn about like manure...
Verse 8 in its entirety...
"How can you claim: "We are wise; the law of the Lord is with us"? In fact, the lying pen of scribes has produced falsehood..."
face/palm slap...
Geez, if you'd quoted the scripture in its entirety in the first place, I probably would have grasped that this verse is NOT talking about the "sacredness of scripture"...!!!!
The scribes were used to RECORD JUDGMENTS in COURT CASES, weren't they???
Well, WHICH do you think this verse refers to? The accuracy of the scriptures, or the dishonesty of the judgments coming down from judges and officials and SCRIBES....!!
That's it... If you haven't the ability to see what that verse WAS referring to, in the first place, it is SERIOUSLY pointless to attempt to communicate with you...
I've played "Whack-A-Mole" long enough...
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N.drew
Can somebody reading or somebody you know please make a bridge for me between "face strike accursed accurse" and "before defeat utterly destroyed". In other words how is one translated into the other. Thanks!
Deuteronomy 7:2
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NewChapter
Hey guys, on my evil apostate plot thread, I finally figured out youtube. You can pop over and listen to me and Noni play---if you like that kind of thing. The vids are on page 8.
That is all. I have nothing more to add to this thread.
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sizemik
Woo hoo . . . on my way
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tec
WHERE do you get the idea that "adding to" and "taking away" COULDN'T happen???
I don't get that. You are the one who used this verse to state that the bible said of itself, that it was inerrant and infallable.
I have been saying all along that it does not state that. Adding to and taking away COULD happen! So it cannot be inerrant.
Oh, that's right - you think some Johnny-come-lately Bronze-Age Middle-Eastern male volcano "god" was going to magically "protect" those words....
Oh that's right nothing... this is another thing that you are stating about me that is blatantly untrue, and I am uncertain if you are not reading my words, or being dishonest.
Seriously... anyone else reading anything I have written on this topic... does it sound like I have been saying that I think the bible is infallable or inerrant?
Have I been unclear? Is there anyone reading this who thinks that I have said that I think God is magically protecting his words in the bible? Or even that I think all the words in the bible are His to begin with?
The entire old testament was in existence by Paul's time...
The Torah, yes. That does not mean that it was all considered inspired scripture, or that it made the claim to be inerrant and protected from error by God.
And perhaps the four Gospels, too...
Even if they were (and at the time Paul wrote his letters, no council had even been formed - or born, I suspect - to create the bible), the gospels do not claim to be inspired. At least Luke's does not. He states at the beginning that he investigated and recorded an account of the accounts handed down from those who were eyewitnesses. That is an investigation and careful report. That is not the same as inspired.
It seems that there are actually two versions of the book of Jeremiah, with differences between the two...
From the Wikipedia article...
"The Septuagint (Greek or 'LXX') version of this book is, in its arrangement and in other particulars, different from the Masoretic Hebrew. The Septuagint does not include 10:6-8; 25:14; 27:19-22; 29:16-20; 33:14-26; 39:4-13; 52:2, 3, 15, 28-30, etc. In all, about 2,700 words found in the Masoretic text are not found in the Septuagint. ..."
Well, it seems THAT book wasn't copied accurately... The Septuagint version is the older version, as of archaeological discoveries to this date...
Yes, as I have been saying about inerrancy and all...
Well, well, well.... Jeremiah 1: 12 states:
"The Lord said to me, "you have seen correctly, for I watch over My word to accomplish it."
Sounds like another claim that Hebrew scripture is "divine" and therefore infallible...
Well, I looked this up to check it. But no it does not make that claim about writings. First I don't know what translation you are using. Mine and the few on this site make the meaning a little more clear http://bible.cc/jeremiah/1-12.htm
"You have seen correctly, for I am watching to see that my word is fulfilled."
Has nothing to do with protecting writings. Has to do with ensuring that what he says, happens.
Anyway, ploughing onwards...
Cool.
Verse 8 in its entirety...
"How can you claim: "We are wise; the law of the Lord is with us"? In fact, the lying pen of scribes has produced falsehood..."
face/palm slap...
Geez, if you'd quoted the scripture in its entirety in the first place, I probably would have grasped that this verse is NOT talking about the "sacredness of scripture"...!!!!
Again, are you using an NWT translation or something?
"How can you claim: "We are wise; for we have the law of the LORD", when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" NIV
"'How can you say, "We are wise because we have the word of the LORD," when your teachers have twisted it by writing lies?
English Standard Version (©2001)
“How can you say, ‘We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us’? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes has made it into a lie.New American Standard Bible (©1995)
"How can you say, 'We are wise, And the law of the LORD is with us'? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie.King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
" 'How can you say that you are wise and that you have the LORD's teachings? The scribes have used their pens to turn these teachings into lies.I think those shed a little more clarity on the meaning.
The scribes were used to RECORD JUDGMENTS in COURT CASES, weren't they???
Scribes were used to scribe. Period. Scribe whatever needed to be scribed. Scripture, letters, laws, I would assume court cases and such as well.
Well, WHICH do you think this verse refers to? The accuracy of the scriptures, or the dishonesty of the judgments coming down from judges and officials and SCRIBES....!!
I think it refers to the accuracy of the law and teachings, as the verse states.
Peace,
Tammy
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N.drew
The answer to the question "how do you know?"
It's a puzzle. When the piece fits I am confident, but not sure (because I am not all mighty), that it is to be believed.
I don't need to hear it from a man just like an inventor thinks up new stuff on her own.
Where does the inspiration for invention or math come from? The spiritual person receives her inspiration the same way.
