OUCH!
This kind of discussion always made my head hurt! LOL!
Kenneson said;
John 1:1 places the Word in the beginning. It doesn't say the Word
had a beginning. Gen. 1:1 says: "In the beginning God created..."
God was there in the beginning, but no one would suggest He had a beginning. Moreover, vs. 26 indicates that God was speaking to someone, because it says "let us make man in our image." He couldn't have been speaking to angels as some infer, because angels themselves were created and did not create. (John 1:3) Hebrews 1 and 2 prove that Jesus is not an angel, but that he is superior to them. And
1 Peter 3:22 shows that angels are subject to Jesus. So when it says
"let us make man in our image" it could only be referring to the Word
who is Jesus. There never was a time when God was without His Word.
There never was a time when God was "speechless." Gen. 1 on numerous occasions says "And God said..." Does God have a mouth and voice
to speak as some believe? Or is this an anthropomorphism? Is God's spokesman (the Word) there at the very beginning of creation or not?
If Jesus is already in the beginning then both the Father and the Son are co-creator. Jesus is the beginning of the creation of God (Rev. 3:14) not that he himself was created, but rather that he is the
origin of creation. See also Col. 1:16-17
Adonai said;
Isaiah 43:10-11 emphasis on the second half:
"You are my witnesses," declares Yahweh,"and my servant whom I have chosen, So that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me. I, even I, am Yahweh and apart from me there is no savior."
God here is clearly saying that there are NO created 'gods' period-none before nor after. Since you 'think' Jesus is created (which is contrary to scripture also) and you 'think' he is only 'a god' then exactly when was he created? Before the Father, after the Father? Neither of those two options are right according to Isaiah and what does that leave?
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Now.......Let me make it clear that I am NOT arguing scripture or being obstinate, it's just that I was SO POSITIVE in my heart for 30 years that my JW beliefs were solid, and now, with discussions like this, all I DO know is that I DON'T know much of anything!!! (My reasons for leaving the WTS were finding out I'd been duped, lied to, manipulated, and treated like crap cuz I wasn't a pioneer, I had a nonJW husband-that I married years before I became a JW-and that when I became disabled, between a wheelchair and crutches, I was ignored for six months and so forth. I never had, at the time, an issues with understanding of scripture.
Having said that, I NOW have LOTS of questions and misgivings, and will ask others when I don't understand something (like THIS topic, and I have others, LOL)
When God said to be making man in "our" image, as already posted--it couldn't be "angels" He spoke to, and the only logical explanation would have to be Jesus who was there.
So (1)if there were no other Gods before or after...and Jesus is globally referred to as "Lord and Savior"...HOW does this add up?
And if (2) God and Jesus are one and the same, as some people say, HOW could God be talking to himself and saying to make man in "OUR" image?
And if (3) God and Jesus are the same "person", and Jesus prayed to GOD...it's got to be explained somehow.
And when (4) Jesus died, (and they're, again, both the same, did God die, and commend his soul to himself???
A 30 year "bible student" has come down to asking questions that sound like they come from someone who doesn't know Jack about the bible. Discouraging, ain't it folks?
STILL looking for answers,
Annie
Back at the bottom of the class