during our engagement, we fooled around and touch each other down there. It's not a "tap" but definitely is not "stimulation". I tried to convince my wife, who, after 5 years of marriage, strangely felt guilty all the sudden, that its not do called porneia. Well i am fading and shes still in, so thats probably why i'm not guilt ridden.
All the articles the gb provide seem to say that other that oral, anal, and vaginal penetration, masturbating another person is what can be classified ad porneia.
Again, my wife came up with some creative questions i cannot really answer so i tried to find sources on this from their own governing body but now i am confused.
Below is the excerpt from a letter to elders.
WT says “Immoral use of” is not just touching but operating, manipulating, or employing something. To touch a musical instrument differs from making “use of” it. “Lewd intent” identifies motive. A doctor may manipulate genitals for examining . A vet, farmer, rancher may touch animals without sexual intent. “Manipulation” is operating something by hands or otherwise, doesn’t require skin-to-skin contact.
Momentarily touching another’s genitals, even if intentional, would generally not be considered porneia.
My question is, what does it mean a doctor may need to manipulate a patient's genital? after reading this i am not sure i understand english well.
Also, what is making use of a musical instrument? let say i hit two notes of a piano, am i making use of it? Isnt a musical instrument supposedly used to make music?
thanks!!