Can anyone disprove 607 BCE date using only the NWT and WT literature? (page 2)

Doug Mason

Hi,

I provide the evidence you seek at:

http://www.jwstudies.com/WTS_support_for_the_Babylonian_king-list.pdf

Doug

jgnat

Heck, the WTS can't come up with their date unless they refer to at least one external secular source. Floating candles.

Remember that the Watchtower prophesy makers did not realize there was no zero year, so they started with the date of 606. Once they realized their error they then simultaneously realized the 606 date was in error in the exact proportion to the extra zero year.

Once I realized this fact I began to question pretty much everything.

sowhatnow

well bart is say since jesus said we dont know the times or dates, and to not look for any, thats pretty simple. lol

wizzstick

An easy one to use is Jeremiah 25:12

12 “‘But when 70 years have been fulfilled, I will call to account the king of Babylon and that nation for their error,’ declares Jehovah, ‘and I will make the land of the Chaldeans a desolate wasteland for all time.

JW's believe that the 70 years runs from 607BCE - 537BCE. But according to the above, what happens at the end of the 70 years? God calls to account the king of Babylon and that nation for their error.

How can God call the King of Babylon to account in 537, when the king was overthrown by Cyrus in 539? You can't call someone to account 2 years after they've gone!

lurkernomore

Marked

KiddingMe

Marked

leaving_quietly

There is no need to disprove 607 B.C.E. One must first prove that there is a prophecy that points to 1914 in the first place.

Here's the Society's official stance: http://www.jw.org/en/bible-teachings/questions/daniel-4-bible-chronology-1914

Now, go READ Daniel 4 in its entirety and see if there's any room left for a SECOND fulfillment of the vision. Specifically verse 24.

If there is no second fulfillment, then the whole 1914 chronology thing falls apart.

AnnOMaly

Bart,

Not 'disproved' per se, but serious doubt can be cast on the Org's skewed interpretation of certain scriptures. wizzstick has already mentioned a good one - Jer. 25:12.

Jer. 29:10 is another. How could Jehovah say the exiles would be there 'at' Babylon when a) the exiles He was addressing were taken 10 years before Jerusalem was destroyed (so these exiles would, in fact, have been 'at' Babylon 80 years, not 70), and b) Jerusalem may never have been destroyed and further exiles taken if Zedekiah and the people had obeyed Jehovah's instructions (Jer. 27:11,12,17)? Why start the '70 years clock' at an indeterminate time in those exiles' future - a future that was not set? Why mislead those exiles by saying they would only be there 70 years when God really meant 80?

If the 70 years 'desolation, without an inhabitant' period could only start to be counted after Gedaliah's murder in the 7th month of '607,' why did Jehovah tell Ezekiel to prophesy to the 'inhabitants of these ruins' in the 10th month (Ezek. 33:21-29)?

Also, going back to Jer. 29, the Bible says the 70 years would be fulfilled, then the exiles would pray, then Jehovah would bring them back home. Daniel (ch. 9) discerned the 70 years were up and then entreated God for His forgiveness, to turn away His reproach and bless Jerusalem and its sanctuary. If the 70 years finished once the Jews were back home (thereby evidence of God's forgiveness and blessing), why then entreat Him for his forgiveness and blessing?

Just having 539 BCE as the end point of Babylon's 70 years, of the exiles' servitude to Babylon, of Babylon's king being called to account, will screw up the WTS's 607-based timeline.

life is to short

marked

Can anyone disprove 607 BCE date using only the NWT and WT literature?