What Will JW's Do If They Find Themselves Still Conscious after Death?

by Sea Breeze 60 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Disillusioned JW
    Disillusioned JW

    I agree that according to John 3:13 the way to resurrection to life in heaven only became available till after the resurrection (alleged) of Jesus. The textual context of the verse is of before Jesus died and went to heaven (allegedly went to heaven), thus the text gives the impression that Jesus said the Son of Man ascended to heaven before Jesus was born (namely, allegedly before the Son of Man descended to be born as Jesus as a human). [Perhaps that verse is an anachronistic comment by the writer of the gospel, and thus that the writer should have used different wording to fit the temporal context of the rest of his gospel account.] But for many years as a JW and as an inactive JW (and ex-JW) the part, which seemingly is about the Son of Man having ascended before he descended, was very puzzling to me. That is because me, when I had thought of the ascension of Jesus to heaven, I thought that it (according to the Bible) only happened after Jesus became resurrected (according to the Bible). I did not notice any verses in the Bible which spoke of Jesus (or a divine Son of Man) being on Earth prior to Jesus being conceived in the womb of Mary (according to the Bible).

    Granted the WT teaches that some of the OT statements about Jehovah coming down to Earth were of Jesus coming to Earth as the representative of Jehovah. Likewise the WT teaches that some of the OT statements about the angel of Jehovah coming down to Earth were of Jesus coming to Earth as the representative of Jehovah. But for many years I never interpreted the verse in John 3:13 being about that, since the OT does not state that Jesus descended (such as having descended in BCE times) and it does not state that the Son of Man descended. But I now think that some 1st century Christians (and maybe some Jews living before the 1st century CE, ones who contemplated the arrival of the Messiah) might have interpreted parts of the OT mentions of YHWH coming down to Earth as being about a divine being who was not Yahweh in the sense of God the Father. I noticed that in some of the Psalms it is hard to identify which being is said to be speaking in a given verse; it seems like the identity of the 'speaker' changes from one verse to another in the same Psalm, without the change being explicitly stated/named in the Psalm. That makes such Psalms confusing to me. [I later learned that sometimes one of the 'speakers' might be a human chorus, or a human king sitting on 'David's throne'.] Some of those Psalms seem to be partly about the Messiah and partly about YHWH God. Maybe that is how the idea got started. I can also see how readers could have interpreted those verses as indicating that there are two divine persons called YHWH, and thus get a binitarian idea or a trinitarian idea.

  • markweatherill
    markweatherill
    What Will JW's Do If They Find Themselves Still Conscious after Death?

    Play dead until given directions otherwise

  • Beth Sarim
    Beth Sarim

    ""Play dead until given directions otherwise""

    & for legal reasons,,,of course.

  • Diogenesister
    Diogenesister

    What's the old joke?

    St. Peter opens the doors of the pearly gates and let's in a couple after a car crash...

    "Come in, come in welcome..."

    He takes them past some rooms with "Catholic" "Anglican" "Mormon" They move on past lots of rooms with the names of various religions.

    Then he puts a finger to his lips "shhhhh" as they pass a sign with "Jehovah's witnesses". The couple look confused.....

    St. Peter laughs "They think they're the only ones up here!!"

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete
    • Often John 3:13 "no one has ascended to heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man." has been understood as insisting that Jesus was telling Nicodemus that no one had gone to heaven prior to Jesus. Yet oddly Jesus appears to be saying that he alone has ascended to heaven. Commentators are struck by the surprising use of the perfect tense.

      "The perfect tense "has ascended" is unexpected." Morris, The Gospel According to John, 223

      :"The use of the perfect tense is a difficulty, for it seems to imply that the Son of Man has already ascended into heaven." Raymond Brown, The Gospel According to John, 1:132.

      "The difficulty of the verse lies in the tense of "has ascended." It seems to imply that the Son of Man had already at the moment of speaking ascended into heaven.? C.K. Barrett, The Gospel According to St. John (London: SPCK, 1972), 177.

      So then what was the author of the words at John 3 trying to say? An answer may be found in comparing Jewish and Christian idiom. It appears that "No one has ascended to heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man, who is in heaven" is a figure of speech indicating a special divine enlightenment. Jesus in the context of verse 13 is revealing his unique understanding of the secrets of life and salvation.

      Significantly the phrase "who is in heaven," at the end of verse 13 which appears in many Greek as well as Latin and Syriac manuscripts, (A [ * ] Q Y 050 Ë 1,13 Ï latt sy c,p,h and late second early 3rd century Hippolytus, Against Hersies of Noetus 1, 1:7 )

      This would suggest that Jesus, while living on earth, was at the same time also "in heaven".. IOW We are speaking in metaphors. Being in communication with God could be said to have 'ascended to heaven' to have heard these things. Nicodemus wants to understand "heavenly things" and it is only Jesus who "ascended to heaven" and "is in heaven" who can reveal them.

      Following this then, the variants and omission of the closing words in some leading mss, "who is in heaven" possibly resulted from literalizing the expression and trying to make sense of it in the same way that modern readers usually do.

      Perhaps this is similar to what is meant at Eph 2:6 when it says Christians are "seated in heavenly places", meaning having received enlightenment, a familiarity with heavenly things.

      Similarly, Baruch 3:29 asks:

      "Who has gone up to heaven and obtained her [Wisdom] and brought her down from the clouds?"
      Adam Clarke commented on this passage: This seems to be a figurative expression for "no one has known the mysteries of the Kingdom," as in Deuteronomy 30:12 and Romans 10:6; and the expression is found in the generally received maxim that to be perfectly acquainted with the concerns of a place, it is necessary for a person to be on the spot.

      A German expositor, Christian Schoettgen, in his Horae Hebraicae observed of John 3:13

      : "It was an expression common among the Jews who often say of Moses that he ascended to heaven and there received a revelation on the institution of divine worship.? He quotes the rabbis as saying, "It is not in heaven, that you should say, "Oh that we had one like Moses the prophet of the Lord to ascend into heaven and bring it [the Law] down to us." (Jerusalem Targum on Deut. 30:12).

      So John 3:13 cannot be used as evidence that the author/editors of John denied the commonly believed idea of ancient worthies ascending to heaven. This understanding dovetails well with Jesus' assertion that Abraham Isaac and Jacob were raised and alive to worship God in Mark 12:26,7.

  • Vidiot
    Vidiot
    Saw Breeze - “…What will be the likely reaction of JWs if they find themselves conscious after death?”

    Existential panic? 😏

  • Reasonfirst
    Reasonfirst

    For my part, if I woke up (regained my lost consciousness) after such a long (sleep), the second thing would likely be, "I think I need to have a shit!"

  • Disillusioned JW
    Disillusioned JW

    Thanks peacefulpete for what you said about John 3:13 including a metaphor.

    Readers, in agreement with Ecclesiastes 9:5-6 (NKJV), Psalms 146:4 (which is not a part of wisdom literature) says the following.

    "His spirit departs, he returns to his earth;
    In that very day his plans perish."

    In a post in a different topic thread I said in part the following.

    'The Bible thus expresses a range of views of what happens to humans after their bodies die, and in regards to whether humans have an immortal component or not. Furthermore, when it says or suggests there is an immortal component, it also states competing views of whether it is conscious or not. These observations are further mentioned in another book I own, one called THE OXFORD COMPANION TO THE BIBLE, Edited by Metzger and Coogan. This book is copyright 1993. Note some of what it says, in the following.

    The entry of "Afterlife and Immortality" "consists of two articles on views of life and death within the historical communities of Ancient Israel and Second Temple Judaism and Early Christianity." Some of things said in the first article of that entry say the following.

    'Israelite views of the afterlife underwent substantial changes during the first millennium BCE, as concepts popular during the preexlic period eventually came to be rejected by the religious leadership of the exilic and postexilic communities, and new theological stances replaced them. ...

    Because many elements of preexilic beliefs and practices concerning the dead were eventually repudiated, the Hebrew Bible hardly discusses preexilic concepts at all ....

    Like all cultures in the ancient Near East, the Israelites believed that persons continued to exist after *death. It was thought that following death, one's spirit went down to a land below the earth, most often called Sheol, but sometimes merely "Earth," or "the Pit (see hell). In the preexilic period, there was no notion of a judgment of the dead based on their actions during life, nor is there any evidence for a belief that the righteous dead go to live in God's presence. ...

    The exact relationship between the body of a dead person and the spirit that lived on in Sheol is unclear, since the Bible does not discuss this issue. ... during the late eighth and seventh centuries' [BCE] there were 'laws against necromancy' which 'assume not that it was impossible to summon the dead from Sheol but that it was inappropriate. ...

    During the exile, when the "Yahweh alone" party finally came to control the religious leadership of Judah, a further step was taken', and several texts from that period 'suggest that it is not only improper to consult the dead but actually impossible to do so.' [Note that the WT also teaches that only Yahweh is God (at least in the full sense) and it teaches that it is both improper and impossible to consult the dead - except possibly those they consider to be resurrected anointed JWs in heaven.] 'A new theology developed that argued there is no conscious existence in Sheol at all. At death all contact with the world, and even with God, comes to an end.' [This is what the WT teaches, except they don't say it is a new biblical theory, and furthermore they teach the hope of a resurrection.]

    The second article in the entry describes how the Jews, "owing to the widespread influence of the platonic idea of the immortality of the soul (see Human Person)" came to believe in immortality and resurrection and that there would be "reward or punishment" for those who die, and that those ideas were adopted by Christianity. That article also says that such ideas created a tension between ideas both in Judaism and in Christianity.

    The entry/article called "Human Person" says the following.

    "The Hebrew word for the human being is nepeš, which among its wide range of meanings connotes both flesh and soul as inseparable components of a person." But how [can] they be viewed as inseparable, since later on the article says the following. "At death, the person's flesh dies, and the soul dwells in Sheol, a shadowy place for the dead (see Afterlife and Immortality; Hell)." Perhaps the explanation lies in the next two sentences of the article which say the following. "There is no notion in what may be called orthodox Israelite religion of a separate existence for the soul after death. Death is accepted as a natural part of the life cycle, but it is not welcomed, for the person who dies loses his or her being." After referring to Psalms 30:9 the paragraph later by says the following. "Death is thus perceived to be the end of all sentient life. [ " ]

    Later the article says the following. "In the New Testament, the still prominent idea of bodily resurrection (see especially the resurrection narratives in the Gospels and also 1 Cor. 15) implies that the soul and body are inseparable, but the notion of a human being composed of a separate soul and body slowly gains ascendancy."

    Note that parts of the Bible teach that humans do have an immortal soul, but that some of those parts teach the soul of the human dead is unconscious whereas some other verses teach that is conscious. Furthermore, note that other parts of the Bible teach that humans do not have an immortal soul at all.

    The above content to me is enormous further proof that the Bible's theological teachings are not the word of God, but merely human ideas of theology, and that such human ideas evolved over the centuries. The Bible are the words (and ideas) of humans (including conflicting views between various human writers of the Bible, not just pertaining to the topics mentioned above) and not the Word of God. Since the Bible is not the word of God, of any god, humans should not feel obligated by the Bible to believe anything the Bible teaches. People thus should feel free to decide which teachings of the Bible, if any, are correct - just as we would do for any nonreligious secular writing or teaching. I encourage believers in the Bible to question what the Bible teaches.'

    Everything above in this post, except for the first paragraph of this post, is a copy of part of what posted in an earlier post in a different topic thread (plus some corrections in brackets).

    In addition to what I quoted from the Oxford book in that earlier post of mine, the Oxford book (on page 16) also says the following (which includes parts of what I quoted earlier).

    "Necromancy was particularly opposed by the religious group that supported the worship of Yahweh alone. The popular views of afterlife and the dead came under increasing attack during the late eighth and seventh centuries. The laws against necromancy date to this period, and a number of outright attacks and satires on the older ideas about the nature of existence in Sheol appear in the literature of this time (e.g., Isa. 8.19-22; 14.9-11).

    ... These laws apparently did not have the desired effect on the Judean population." The next three sentences of the article says the following (which I partially quoted in my earlier article). 'During the exile, when the "Yahweh alone" party finally came to control the religious leadership of Judah, a further step was taken. Several texts appearing to date from the exile and postexilic periods suggest that it is not only improper to consult the dead but actually impossible to do so.' ... 'A new theology developed that argued there is no conscious existence in Sheol at all. At death all contact with the world, and even with God, comes to an end.'

    That quote from the scholarly Oxford book agrees completely with what I said in an earlier post in this topic thread. Notice that it says when there came to be Jewish religious leaders who preached that "Yahweh alone" should be worshiped that 'theology developed that argued there is no conscious existence in Sheol at all. At death all contact with the world, and even with God, comes to an end.' That view was apparently started by the "Yahweh alone" group of religious leaders. The WT, which stresses worship of only Yahweh/Jehovah, also says that the dead are completely unconscious. The WT even says the ones who have died are completely dead - except for those whom they say have experienced a resurrection to life in heaven.

    Note the scholarly book by Oxford indicates that the "Yahweh alone" religious leaders (ones who supported worship of Yahweh alone) wanted people to stop making efforts to contact to dead, and that after those efforts (which consisted of laws that are stated in the books of Deuteronomy and Leviticus) failed, a new theology was developed which said that the dead are completely unconscious. It thus appears that the later Jewish religious teaching (apparently by the "Yahweh alone" religious leaders) was created to convince Jews to no longer attempt to communicate with the dead.

  • Vanderhoven7
    Vanderhoven7

    Whether you wake up immediately at death or wait till the resurrection, you will have the exact same reaction. Either way, the next conscious moment after death, you will face the inevitable.

  • Disillusioned JW
    Disillusioned JW

    In answer to the hypothetical question of this topic thread, my answer is "Who knows? There is no way for any living human to know for certain (if hypothetically the human dead are conscious)." That is because the Bible teaches multiple views of the state of the dead and numerous other religions have other views, and even if one of those views is correct (about the dead being conscious) there is no way to determine which of those views is correct. There is even the view of reincarnation, including the idea of being reincarnated as a nonhuman animal, or a plant, or something else. [Granted there are reports of near death experiences in which people think they experienced an afterlife. There also people who think they recall having one or more past lives. And, there are people who think they received a message from a spirit realm. But there is no conclusive proof that a spirit being has contacted anyone, nor that any spirit realm even exists.]

    Since even if dead humans are conscious in some form, no human can prove what kind of existence such formerly living humans have. Therefore, it is best not dwell on it to much, other than attempt to live a good moral and ethic life which respects life (at least sentient life). If hypothetically there is an afterlife for humans, hopefully deceased humans won't be punished for eating animals, or for intentionally killing those animals which are considered pests in human habitations and in crop fields.

    Correction of my prior post: Where I wrote ".... the dead but actually impossible to do so.' ... 'A new theology developed ..." I should have wrote ".... the dead but actually impossible to do so. A new theology developed ...".

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