startingover,
I've wondered if they became a bit more vague about Dan. 2:1 because of the chronological conflict the statement creates with Ezekiel.
In the "All Scripture" book under Ezekiel, they list what year it is under nearly every subheading. Using their chronology, Ezek. 24:1 (9th year) is 609. Ezek. 29:1 (10th year) is 608.
Sandwiched in between these chapters is this pronounciation against the king of Tyre: "look! you are wiser than Daniel. There are no secrets that have proved a match for you." (Ezek. 28:3) In the large print NWT, a reference superscript for "Daniel" points to Daniel 2:48.
The closest year identifier for Chapter 28 is Ezek. 26:1 (11th year). No month is given, so by WT chronology, it should be 608 or 607 depending on how Ezekiel reckons the start of his exile; leaving Jerusalem (Adar), arriving at his city of exile, or just using the Jewish calendar where the month mentioned is the actual month of the year.
How has Daniel gained so much fame that he requires no explanation as to who he is in a declaration to a foreign king (Tyre) in 608/7 when he (Daniel) hasn't been faced with Nebuchadnezzar's 1st dream yet in 606/5? Even Nebuchadnezzar doesn't consider him as capable at this point since Daniel was not brought before the king, but instead Daniel seeks the king out; and not to reveal the dream, but to ask for time. So, Dan.1:17 seems to be a segue to Chapter 2 and Daniel doesn't yet have the dream interpreting ability until his prayer in chap. 2.