Momof5
So if Jesus was the APPEARANCE of a human and the scripture uses the word FORM, then he also had the APPEARANCE of GOD since the word form is used there also?
My suggestion on "appearance" was less based on the word morphè ("form") which is common to "God" and "man" in the Philippians hymn than on the word homoioma ("semblance, resemblance, similarity, likeness") which is used in relation to the "humanity" of Christ in both Philippians and Romans. Remember, in the Trinitarian debates of the 4th century AD the question was whether the Son was homoousios (of the same substance) or homoiousios (of like substance) to the Father -- and the latter view was dismissed as heretical.
About morphè ("form"), actually it doesn't say much: just that "Christ Jesus" chose to descend from the godly sphere to the human sphere. This does not make him a true or simple "man" (which of course will be later affirmed, e.g. 1 Timothy 2:5).