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Is not your last statement ad hominim according to the following definition?
[Latin, To the person.] A term used in debate to denote an argument made personally against an opponent, instead of against the opponent's argument.
In your last post, werent you explaining the meaning and purpose of your intial questions, that you wrote?
Why do people resort to ad hominim?
Are these not examples of rhetorical questions? Are not these questions simimilar to yours?
How long, Catiline, will you abuse our patience?"
(Cicero, first speech against Catiline)"Was this ambition?"
(Mark Antony in Shakespeare's Julius Caesar)"Hath not a Jew eyes?
Hath not a Jew hands, organs, dimensions, senses, affections, passions?
If you prick us, do we not bleed, if you tickle us, do we not laugh?
If you poison us, do we not die?
And if you wrong us, shall we not revenge?"If only God knows the meaning of the Bible, is that not a waste of pen and paper?
Although the utterers of these questions may say that they are not rhetorical, are they not, really according to definition?
Is not the Bible wriitten in Hebrew Greek and Aramaic? If that is so, then is it not true that English is not the Bible's first language?
Although the Bible has been translated to plain English, do English speaking people, even masters of the english language and literature, do they all understand the meaning of what is clearly written in the English language in the Bible?
When a person resorts to ad hominim, is it not a waste of time continue to dialogue?