(Some may see some repetition here from previous posts. That is because scholar keeps ignoring me.)
Scholar, you state the only year the bible supports is 607. I ask you again the question you have several times ignored in my previous posts: Please explain how the Watchtower's view is consistent with Jeremiah 25:12. Specifically how could the 70 years end 2 years after an event (the calling to account of Babylon's king - 539BC Daniel 5:26-30) which Jeremiah said would occur after the 70 years had been fulfilled.
The Society's interpretation contradicts Jeremiah 25:12 without doubt, and is therefore wrong. Unless they are saying the bible is wrong. Daniel's comments regarding the 70 years MUST be viewed in the context of Jeremiah's original words.
It is not necessary that 2 Chronicles applies the Sabbaths to the fulfilling of the 70 years. To say that the paying off of the Sabbaths covered the 70 years is excessive. Specifically, the Sabbaths were to be repaid for those years that the Sabbath resting of the land had not taken place. (The land was supposed to be allowed to rest every 7 years. (Leviticus 25:1-7)) 490 years (70*7) dates back to before David was king and it is very unlikely that the Sabbath was not followed at all for the entire time.
The following suggested punctuation makes it wholly consistent with 587 (wording as per New World Translation): "Furthermore, he carried off those remaining from the sword captive to Babylon, (and they came to be servants to him and his sons until the royalty of Persia began to reign, to fulfil Jehovah’s word by the mouth of Jeremiah), until the land had paid off its Sabbaths; all the days of lying desolated it kept Sabbath. To fulfil seventy years, in the first year of Cyrus the king of Persia..."
They came to be servants to Babylon (609) until the royalty of Persia began to reign (539) to fulfil Jehovah's word to Jeremiah (70 years)
They were carried away captive to Babylon (587) ... until the land had paid off it's Sabbaths. (possibly 537)
Any other interpretation contradicts Jeremiah 25:12.
The Hebrew word for 'devastations' and 'devastated place' (chorbah Strong's 02723, 'a ruin') at Daniel 9:2 and Jeremiah 25:11 is directly related to the the Hebrew word for 'devastated' (chareb Strong's 02720, 'ruined') that Nehemiah used to describe Jerusalem at Nehemiah 2:17, when populated. It does not mean completely uninhabited.