aqwsed12345 : The phrase [John 1:1c] doesn't say "the Word was the God," which would confuse the Logos with the Father.
aqwsed12345 : John 1:1b should actually be translated as "and the Word was with the God".
Let me try again. I think we can agree that the readers of John's gospel at the time he wrote it would have understood what the Greek meant. Perhaps the Jewish audience would have understood it slightly differently to the gentile audience, but both would have appreciated the relevance of the definite article or lack of it.
Now we are talking about translation into English. You say that John 1:1b should actually be translated as "and the Word was with the God", but it isn't, is it? It is invariably translated "and the Word was with God". Then you have John 1:1c which reads in English that "the Word was God". How does the English reader know that there is any distinction between the God of John 1:1b and that of John 1:1c? If "the God" is implied in John 1:1b "and the Word was with [the] God", how does the English reader know that it is not implied in John 1:1c "the Word was [the] God". They do not, and often assume that the definite article is implied in both cases. This is no fault of the writer, who wrote in Greek. It is the fault of the translator. While you agree that John 1:1c refers to the nature of the Word, you support this misleading translation which most English readers understand to refer to a person rather than a quality. You can do better.
I would also like to touch on your reference to the nomina sacra. You suggest that because Lord is a "sacred name" (i.e. it is abbreviated) when referring to both God and Christ, this shows that the Gospel writers (and Paul) viewed them both the same. First it must be said that while some papyri distinguish between Lord when it referred to God or Christ, and Lord when it referred to others, other papyri treat all references to Lord as a sacred name. Should that cause us to view all lords as equally sacred? I think not. Secondly, we know that the Jews did not use nomina sacra prior to the time it is used in Christian writings, so it is reasonable to believe that the earliest Christian writings also did not use them. We don't know because we don't have those writings, but we do know all the earliest Christian writings were by Jews so it is reasonable they would write in the same way. Some maintain that nomina sacra were first used to replace the divine name, as we know that happened in the LXX. Of course, it then became more difficult to distinguish between Lord when it referred to God and when it referred to Christ. This is the fallacy which you are highlighting.