AGuest has made a couple of points above that I think need to be clarified. She says -
The Greek word “ theos” means “god”… BEFORE it means “God” (as in “the Godhead,” though such a term can be found NOWHERE in the Bible). It also means “gods” (plural) AND can mean “of God” in the same sentence as it means “gods”… but without ANY sign of an “a”, “of,” “by,” or “to” article preceding it.
the Greek word theos means god. It can be translated into English as 'god', 'a god' or 'the god' depending on context, style, grammar and so on. Articles do not determine if the word should be translated 'of', 'by' or 'to', this is accomplished by case endings. For example
theos - god (as the subject); theou - of god; theo - to or for god; and theon - god (as the object); theoi - gods (as the subject); theon - of gods; theois - to or for gods; theous - gods (as the object)
Even MORE interesting is John 10:35 when contrasted with John 1:1. At John 1:1, there is no article (“of,” “a,” etc.) before the word “ theos” to indicate the word (logos) was “a” god, or “of” god, or “the” god. And so the assumption is that “the word… was God.” Yet, even though the EXACT same thing occurs at John 10:35… the translator(s) INCLUDED the article “of” (even though it is not present in the text). So that EVEN THOUGH THE GREEK STATES “If he called them gods unto whom word God came”… such that there is NO “the” (as in “the word”) AND there is no “of” (as in “of God”)… and so, the GREEK states NEITHER “unto whom [the] word” OR “[of] God came”… SOMEONE decided those two articles should in fact GO there… but NO article should go at John 1:1.
I'm not sure why you say the EXACT same thing occurs at John 10:35. John 1.1 is a simple sentence with a linking verb. In the English sentence "The man is a spy" we see that A (the man) = B (a spy) because of word order. It is not, "A spy was the man" unless you are Yoda! Greek didn't use word order to determine meaning. John put the article with logos to show that logos goes before the equal sign, "The word was (=) God." John, the author of the gospel, was a master of language. He knew and intended for this sentence to leave questions in the reader's minds. At this point it is open to doubt wheher John means 'God', 'god' or 'a god'. Letting his readers ponder that he waited until verse 14 to spell it out for us -"The word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . "
At John 10:35 you say, "EVEN THOUGH THE GREEK STATES “If he called them gods unto whom word God came”" but my Nestle-Aland 26 has,"If he called them gods unto whom the word of the god came . . . " If your Greek text does not have articles there you might want to throw it out! The critical apparatus indicates that every manuscript of this passage reads the same except Codex Bezae Cantabrigiensis (D) which omits the phrase "the god came." The articles are there!
To me God is an unknowable mystery! As humans with our limitations we can only comprehend a small part of his greatness and glory. I find that JWs often resort to human terms to describe divinity as does the bible itself. But they get stuck on the math; "How can two people be one? Impossible!" "How can two sticks be one?" Well, they can't. But God is not a person or a stick. God has a divine nature we can't comprehend. How can any person be present everywhere, hearing every prayer, counting all the hairs on our heads? We can't. How can God be Jehovah, Jesus and Spirit all at once? I really don't know but If he can create the world and exist outside of time then I can go along with three-in-one just fine.
