The Jew, Philo described the Logos as an archangel and a secondary god around the time that the gospel of John was written.
Philo, like the writer of G.John, represents a bridge between Greek Logos and the Hebrew OT. He uses language familiar to Jewish readers like 'archangel' but does not suggest the Logos is a secondary god, in fact he argues against that. He/it/she is God's word in action. As such it not in the fullest sense all that God is but it is not apart from God either. A number of authors have seen in his comments an equivalence to John 1 even to the detail of the definite article.
Philosophy, especially one trying to use language not intended for that purpose is necessarily opaque. The 'Two Powers" conceptualization is in play, but Philo is clear he does not mean 'Two Gods".
But when it is said I am the God who was seen of thee in the place of God we must ask: "Are there then two Gods," as the phrase suggests? He that is truly God is one, but they who are loosely so called are many. Where- fore the holy Word uses the definite article of him who is truly God, and not of the many. In the present instance it is his most ancient Logos that is called God — not that the writer is superstitious about the application of terms, but because he sets one goal before himself to keep to his system. For no name belongs rightly to the Absolute, who is of a nature to exist simply, not to be described
I realize you have a prior conviction regarding the complete individuality in Jesus, and this resists the notion that Christ could be a personification of the Word of the God of the Jews. This is of course not the Trinity doctrine nor is it the Arian position, both were literalizations/rationalizations of the Christ figure of Paul and the earliest Christians, that is in a large way the result of the Gospel dramatization being mistaken as history.