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- Revelation 1:1 shows that Jesus, in His role as the mediator between God and humanity, receives knowledge from God. This aligns with His role in the economy of salvation, not with His divine nature."
You don't need to make up stuff like that. A revelation by Jesus Christ which God gave him. When Jesus was a human, he did not know that only 144,000 would serve in heaven with him. Neither did Paul. Both of their teachings were thus wrong and old light. So that recent Watchtower about whether what Jesus said about the Sodomites was hyperbole is moot.
"Jesus is eternally omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent. His divine nature did not change or diminish when He became incarnate. As John 1:1 states, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Jesus, as the Word, is fully God, co-equal and co-eternal with the Father."
No, Jesus is not omnipotent, omniscient or omnipresent and neither is Jehovah God.
John 1:1 is John's word, not God's word. He did not state that the Word was God. Why would he do that? IT was a prologue to a biography, written 65 years after the person's death. If he meant Word was God, why? Because for those 65 years people didn't believe it and he needed to correct that?
Well, in Acts there is no mention of Jesus being God. Quite the opposite all teachings is that Jesus was not God.
So John 1:1c was just John stating that this guy was not some magician but he was a spirit being in heaven prior.