Leolaia- What about the posibility that this was a "grammar error" by one of the original authors? When do the text(s) used come from? I am sure if someone translated my posts here into German or Spanish 2000 years from now there would be many spelling and gramatical errors that might intially seem confusing, right?
Cagefighter....Well, this was composed in Greek, and the language isn't confusing to read at all, other than the minor issue of the participle having masculine gender as I mentioned earlier in this thread. This is a minor issue because this is a rather common thing with neuter sòma "body":
Matthew 14:12: "John's disciples came and took his body (neut.) and buried him (masc.), and they went and reported to Jesus" (the original text in Mark 6:29 has neuter instead). Matthew 27:52-53: " The tombs were opened, and many bodies (neut.) of the saints (masc.) who had fallen asleep (masc.) were raised, and coming out (masc.) of the tombs after his resurrection they entered the holy city and appeared to many".
Mark 15:45-46: " And ascertaining this from the centurion, he granted the body (neut.) to Joseph, and he bought fine linen, and took him (masc.) down, and wrapped him (masc.) in the linen, and laid him (masc.) in a tomb which had been hewn out in the rock; and he rolled a stone against the entrance of the tomb ".
It is the gloss that makes the pericope hard to understand, as Calvin pointed out, it would make the resurrected dead wait in their tombs for a day and a half before leaving them, which is pretty bizarre. But that is the kind of thing that happens with redaction. I am reminded of the awkward gloss in Genesis 6:4: " The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown". This gloss is clearly aimed at linking the antediluvian description of the Nephilim to those mentioned as living in Canaan at the time of the Conquest. This introduces an exegetical problem since the Flood was elsewhere described as wiping out all flesh on the earth and so there is no explanation given for how there were Nephilim living in the land later on.
tootired....I think the simplest explanation is that the "zombie" story was originally associated with the resurrection of Jesus. It is part of the descensus ad inferus tradition that has Jesus release a host of captives from Hades at the time between his death and resurrection. The resurrection of this group would thus not have preceded Jesus' death. The Gospel of Peter draws on this tradition, with the apparition of the talking cross representing those who slept to whom Jesus had preached. This accompanies Jesus at the moment he leaves the tomb. The centurion thus makes his confession on Easter Sunday, not at the moment of Jesus' death. Matthew revises Mark in a way that does not actually describe Jesus' resurrection unlike the Gospel of Peter, but he still wants to incorporate part of this tradition into the narrative. He thus has two earthquakes in his passion narrative; one at the moment of Jesus' death and the other at the moment of the resurrection....both are introduced elements not found in Mark. Since there is no narrative of Jesus' resurrection, it seems like the author moved the "zombie story" back from Sunday to Friday; the confession of the centurion is also moved back from Sunday to Friday because that is when the centurion makes his confession in Mark. This however is problematic because it makes the resurrection of the saints occur prior to Jesus' descent to Hades and prior to Jesus' own resurrection. Hence the gloss which awkwardly tries to smooth over this problem.