John 10:35-36 -God refers to those as heirs in eternal life as gods. In this same passage is where Christ A. states that he and the father are one. B. uses the Jewish laws against the Jews to prove that they were indeed attempting to stone him due to BLASPHEMY.
John 5: 18 Jews accuse Christ of blasphemy
John 5:23-Jesus again makes himself equal with God
Herk says that Christs death was over kingship or possibly because he forgave sins
The Jews were legalist-the point is not that they hated him, but what could they kill him for. Blasphemy to the Jews was making oneself equal with God. They state this everytime they refer to Christ and his blasphemy. "he has made himself equal with God"
Luke 23:40
I Chron 29: 20 and Daniel 2:46 are clearly examples of men honoring other men. No where does it state that the recipients of the honor were receiving worship. Men fell down and worshipped Jesus even when they wanted or needed nothing from him. Matthew 28: 9
Emmanuel is the proper name of many men today, and this in no way implies deity. This is an obvious fact that I am aware of. God gave the baby Jesus the name Emmanuel through his angel. Man did not give Jesus this name. Are we to understand that God the Father had no purpose in revealing this as the name of his son?
A man and his wife become one in spirit but this does not mean they become the same person. The word for one in Hebrew used in this passage is echod.
The term echod in Hebrew does not denote absolute unity but rather composite unity.
For another example we could use Numbers 13. Here echod is used when referring to a cluster of grapes. Only one stem of grapes is represented, but we know that there are many grapes on one cluster. Hence the use of echod. Where else do we see echod?
Deut 6:4 The Lord our God is one(echod) Lord. HHMMMMM
Scholars agree that John 1:1 cannot be effectively interpreted.
James Moffatt and Edgar Godspeed both render John 1:1 as "The word was divine." Neither of them argue against the trinity
The other most popular rendering is "the word was deity" Not changing the intention of John 1:1
Regardless of interpretation the fact that Jesus was the word is not disputable.
Your attempt to change Jesus from the word to words is weak.
Jesus was the word.
The word was made flesh
The word was and has been here from the beginning.
We see this even if we accept the JWs rendering of John 1:1, They dont even deny Jesus was the word, and whether he be God, or a god, he was here in the beginning.
Dr. Robertson states that eimi is translated "absolute"
This usage occurs four times in John
In Those passages the term is the same as the one used in the Septuagint.
This phrase is used only where the Jehovahs lordship is reiterated
John 8:24, 8:58, 13:19, 18:5
God asks us to reason with him. This is proof that we should not believe in something that is beyond our earthly comprehension.
Isaiah 55:8-9, Romans 11: 34-36
Certainly God knows that we have knowledge now, and reasoning powers by which to make better decisions. Is there any end to our reasoning skills?
God says that there is, See above verses
We are not to limit Gods existence to our human reasoning powers.
Are we given a reason for the creation of Satan, and why he was allowed to rebel?
There are many things about God and his creation for which no "reason" is given.
Do I know what Alpha and Omega mean?
First(protos)and last(eschatos)
Some have suggested that this means the first of creation, but that would be prototokas.
And even when Jesus is referred to as the firstborn or prototokas(which he is not in Rev) we know that this does not mean literally firstborn.
See Abraham and his firstborn son(prototokas)Isaac.
Was Isaac Abrahams first born son?
Jehovah gives his glory to no-one Isaiah 42:8, 48:11
Now read John 17:5
Does God contradict himself?
We know that Jesus emptied himself to become human like one of us. This was the only way he could die for humanities sin. While on earth he did not give up his deity, however we are told that he MADE himself a little lower than the angels, and placed himself under the authority of the Father while in human form. When Peter responds to Christ he is answering correctly, but so is Thomas in John 5:18. When Jesus says that the Father is greater than him, he is correct. While on earth in human form, made a slave to die for the sins of humanity, The father held a high position than he. Yet another example of a gross misinterpretation of what the trinity truly is.
When God says "Let us make man in our image" He was talking to his army. The angels are never said to have been created in Gods image, only man. "let us go down there and confound their language" Why does God need his angels to confuse peoples languages. God orders the angels to do things for him, he certainly would not need them to assist him in creation. We are told that God created the heavens and Earth by his word. We are told that He created man in his image. The only sense this passage makes is if he is speaking to someone who is already co-eternal with him.
It is odd that you would admit that the Holy Spirit is an extension of himself, but God.
Are you a completely separate person from your spirit?
Clearly the Spirit has a personality, you can deny this but the scriptures make it plain.
Acts 5:3-4 Acts 13:2-4 Acts 21:10-11
Edited by - meadow77 on 3 December 2002 2:20:58