jgnat,
I've provided my case, several different ways. ... the overwhelming evidence of thriving, NON-BABYLONIAN and NON-ROMAN cultures during their heydey.
Aren't you side-stepping the issue, jgnat? You've ignored what I had asked of you, which was this:
What I'd like to know is, How can you be so sure of yourself? Upon whose word are you resting your belief? How dependable is that "word"? Can it be proven to be true? Please do tell. And please be specific in your answer.
But even if it is true that those other "cultures" did exist at the time Nebuchadnezzar ruled, Gumschizm's question then is: "Do you think because China existed BEFORE Babylon that it could not BECOME under the rule or authority of Babylon?"
Why are you not willing to address that question? With conviction you made the following statement:
You ... insist your Babylonian King MUST have dominated all empires of his day. When he clearly did not.
But how do you KNOW that? What is it that makes it so "clear" to you that some cultures escaped being under Nebuchadnezzar's jurisdiction? .