For those not sick to death of talking about this...607 BCE

by Swamboozled 601 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • thirdwitness
    thirdwitness


    Outlaw, yes I like your argument to. It also fits in well with the rest of them. You willl no doubt like your argument being included in the summary.

    7. 40 years is not literal. 40 is symbolic of many years?

    If that is the case then the Bible should provide examples of 40 year or day periods that were prophecied that turned out to be symbolic and not literally 40 years or days. And then there should be some viable reason, some proof that the symbolism should be applied in the case of Egypt's desolation. What do we find?

    Some defenders of 587 have tried to use the 40 years the Israelites wandered in the wilderness, the raining of 40 days and 40 nights at the time of the flood, Jesus' 40 days in the wilderness, and so forth as proof that 40 can be symbolic of many. But we must point out that all these events covered 40 years or 40 days literally, not figuratively. By using these examples they have done nothing more than disprove their own argument that the 40 years of desolation is figurative. There is no Bible precedent for assigning the 40 year desolation of Egypt as figurative. It is literally without merit.

  • thirdwitness
    thirdwitness

    Leo said: I guess you didn't look up Ezekiel 29:35, huh?

    UH, No I didn't. But I'll look it up just as soon as you look up Hezekiah 3:5.

  • Qcmbr
    Qcmbr

    third - while I disagree with the name calling your going through I wondered what you based your '40' comments on - how do we know any of the references to forty are literal?

    I would be interested also in why you need the destruction of Jerusalem to be in 607 when nothing happened that Daniel prophesied in 1914 or indeed in 1934 - in other words what happened in 1914 that you need to have happen? I accept the idea of an invisible kingdom being taken up but that isn't proof of anything its just a belief not backed by anything. In other words defending a tenuous date to defend a tenuous prophetic fulfillment which was only prophesied by an organisation that has said its not inspired is puzzling to me.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    For those who do not have time to read this whole thread allow me to give a brief summary for you. First a link was given to a site that Biblically proves 607 and disproves 587.

    3w: http://www.jehovahsjudgment.co.uk/607/default.html

    The document is based on one I dealt with at http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/12/107058/1868670/post.ashx#1868670

    And so 3w put forth the infomation found here: http://www.jehovahsjudgment.co.uk/607/egypt.html

    I dealt with most of the problems in this document at http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/10/117647/2068232/post.ashx#2068232

    This information showed that the 40 year desolation of Egypt by Neb as prophecied by Jehovah in Ezekiel 29-32 clearly disproves 587 beyond a doubt. Now it became pertinent for 587 defenders to disprove that the 40 year desolation of Egypt never happened as prophecied. They certainly could not admit that JWs are right. And so the discussion proceeded. While the discussion also covered other areas, this summation will only cover the discussion that concerns the 40 year desolation of Egypt. Lets look at the 587 defender's proofs.

    Firstly, 'prophecied' is not a word. Being replete with errors, the article disproves nothing.

    1. Ezekiel said Tyre would never be rebuilt but it was, therefore since the Tyre prophecy is figurative then the Egypt prophecy must be figurative.

    Tyre was indeed rebuilt, though 'scholar' hasn't been able to admit that yet. While there is some logic in refuting that one does not prove the other, that Tyre's 70 years was figurative does not disprove that Egypt's was either. The point is therefore irrelevant.

    2. Jehovah told Jonah to tell Nineveh that it would be overthrown but when Ninevah repented he did not carry it out so likewise Egypt.

    While it is possible that the same occurred, it is unlikely. The much more likely scenario is given below.

    3. There is no secular evidence that gives any indication that Egypt was desolated during this time period.
    No, there isn't.
    4. There is no way that Babylon could have displaced millions of Egytians.

    True, but superflous to the discussion.

    5. Ezekiel was a false prophet and neither the Tyre prophecy or the Egypt prophecy came true.

    Superfluous to the discussion.

    1. Ezekiel said Tyre would never be rebuilt but it was, therefore since the Tyre prophecy is figurative then the Egypt prophecy must be figurative. There are many things in the Bible that are figurative. It is faulty reasoning to say of totally unrelated subjects without any connection, 'Since this is figurative then that must also be figurative.' Even if we assume that the Tyre prophecy is figurative, it must be shown that this is somehow connected to the Egypt prophecy and that it must also be figurative. No connection was made except that both prophecies were made by Ezekiel. Do we conclude that all prophecies in the Bible are figurative because the Tyre prophecy is figurative(assuming that it is)? Do we assume that all prophecies of Ezekiel are figurative because the Tyre prophecy is figurative? The reasoning is absurd.
    Do we assume that because Tyre's 70 years are figurative, than nothing else is? Of course not. The argument is not only entirely irrelevant, but also unnecessary.

    2. Jehovah told Jonah to tell Nineveh that it would be overthrown but when Ninevah repented he did not carry it out so likewise Egypt.

    It is much more likely that the reward (Ezekiel 29:19-20) to Babylon of causing such severe desolation of Egypt was withdrawn not because Egypt repented, but because Nebuchadnezzar was unnecessarily cruel in his destruction of Jerusalem (Zechariah 1:15; Jeremiah 25:38 and 51:34-36). In such a scenario, the 40 years may have originally indeed been intended as literal, but simply did not eventuate because of changed circumstances (Jeremiah 18:7, 8).

    3. There is no secular evidence that gives any indication that Egypt was desolated during this time period.

    No, there isn't.

    There is very little secular evidence about Egypt during this time. It is not surprising that Egypt would fail to record such a defeat. After all, they did not record the exodus of the Israelites from Egypt either. Does that mean the exodus never happened?

    This comparison is unwise after saying that the conditions of one event (Tyre's 70 years) have no bearing on a separate event (Egypt's 40 years).

    But why didn't the Babylonians record this defeat upon Egypt? Surely they would have bragged about it. Well, there most definitely is proof that the attack by Nebuchadnezzar against Egypt happened. The evidence shows that just two years after the final part of the prophecy against Egypt an attack was made by Neb against Egypt. The Babylonian chronicle known as BM 33041 says: "In the thirty-seventh year of Nebuchadnezzar, king of the country of Babylon, he went to Mitzraim (Egypt) to make war. Amasis, king of Egypt, collected [his army], and marched and spread abroad..." Fortunately for 587 proponents the rest of the chronicle is badly damaged and the extent of the defeat of Egypt cannot be read. But I am quite sure that if we could read the entire inscription we would have the further proof. However, the part that can be deciphered is enough to prove that a campaign by Neb against Egypt did take place right on time just after Ezekiel prophecied it. What a coincidence, huh?

    Apparently, the only secular evidence is that thirdwitness is "quite sure". Sorry, but that's not good enough. Of course, it is known that Amasis was alive up until 527BC, after a reign of about 44 years, so it extremely unlikely that Egypt was completely desolated for almost all of that time.

    4. There is no way that Babylon could have displaced millions of Egytians.

    Indeed a valid point, but superfluous.

    5. Ezekiel was a false prophet and neither the Tyre prophecy nor the Egypt prophecy came true.

    Irrelevant.

    This argument is made by the ones that realize that if Ezekiel's prophecy is accurate then 587 is wrong.

    Use of the word 'realize' is used to imply dishonesty, and is therefore simply an ad hominem attack. A prophecy does not necessitate an eventuality (Jeremiah 18:7-8), and accurate details in a prophecy do not necessitate literal details.

    So rather than being dishonest and pretending that the Bible supports 587 they come right out and tell you that the Bible is wrong on this. Many did this on this thread. One of which is one of the leaders here among you against 607, AlanF. He declared: Ezekiel demonstrably falsely prophesied about the ultimate rebuilding of Tyre, and all of his other prophecies are called into question....Because you failed to acknowledge the fact that Ezekiel prophesied falsely, the rest of your statements are mere attempts to misrepresent the issue and misdirect your readers....The simple fact is that Ezekiel prophesied falsely, and therefore his words cannot be taken as gospel.

    thirdwitness seems to think that there are "leaders" here. This is a reflection of his hierarchical JW mentality.

    I rest my case.

    Your case is far from proven. I have indicated a perfectly valid scenario which allows the 40 years to have been intended as a literal period, and which is completely compatible with all of the biblical and secular evidence, which are all compatible with the fact that Jerusalem was destroyed in 587BC.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    When we examine the time period that the prophesy of the desolation of Egypt was given we will see this cannot possibly be the case. The final part of Ezekiel's prophecy was given about 17 years after Neb desolated Jerusalem, the 27th year of Ezekiel's exile. Therefore Jehovah had already seen and and for a fact knew exactly the treatment that Neb had measured out to Judah when he made the prophesy. Do we imagine that Jehovah had temporary amnesia and thus prophecied Neb would desolate Egypt and get much booty? Then Jehovah's memory returned so that he said, 'Nevermind. I just remembered what Neb did to my people in presumptuosuly going beyond what I wanted him to do. Scratch that last prophesy about Egypt's desolation.' The implications are ridiculous.

    No, you funny little troll. However the treatment of the Jews once they were already exiled in Babylon after the prophecy could of course have influenced a change in attitude. Your error was that you chose to mistake brevity for inaccuracy.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro

    LOL. Yes, Ezekiel 29:35 does not exist. I got my copy and pastes mixed up, as it was getting late at the time here.

    Ezekiel 29:19-20 was the correct reference, as indicated in a more recent reply to thirdwitness. Sorry for any confusion.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    Some defenders of 587 have tried to use the 40 years the Israelites wandered in the wilderness, the raining of 40 days and 40 nights at the time of the flood, Jesus' 40 days in the wilderness, and so forth as proof that 40 can be symbolic of many. But we must point out that all these events covered 40 years or 40 days literally, not figuratively. By using these examples they have done nothing more than disprove their own argument that the 40 years of desolation is figurative. There is no Bible precedent for assigning the 40 year desolation of Egypt as figurative. It is literally without merit.

    As a side point, according to Matthew 4:1-2 and Mark 1:12-13, Jesus spent forty days in the wilderness immediately following his Baptism, however the narrative in John 1:29 - 2:1 states that Jesus was at the wedding in Cana 3 days after his baptism.

    Not the best example to illustrate your point, thirdwitness.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    Leo said: I guess you didn't look up Ezekiel 29:35, huh?

    UH, No I didn't. But I'll look it up just as soon as you look up Hezekiah 3:5.

    People still bandy that 'book of Hezekiah' thing around? Woah... 1980s flashback!!

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    I would be interested also in why you need the destruction of Jerusalem to be in 607 when nothing happened that Daniel prophesied in 1914 or indeed in 1934 - in other words what happened in 1914 that you need to have happen? I accept the idea of an invisible kingdom being taken up but that isn't proof of anything its just a belief not backed by anything. In other words defending a tenuous date to defend a tenuous prophetic fulfillment which was only prophesied by an organisation that has said its not inspired is puzzling to me.

    Qcmbr, Daniel did not prophesy anything at all for 1914, or 1934. The 1914 prattle is based solely on a combination of flawed, distorted, and convoluted interpretations.

  • Jeffro
    Jeffro
    When we examine the time period that the prophesy of the desolation of Egypt was given we will see this cannot possibly be the case. The final part of Ezekiel's prophecy was given about 17 years after Neb desolated Jerusalem, the 27th year of Ezekiel's exile. Therefore Jehovah had already seen and and for a fact knew exactly the treatment that Neb had measured out to Judah when he made the prophesy. Do we imagine that Jehovah had temporary amnesia and thus prophecied Neb would desolate Egypt and get much booty? Then Jehovah's memory returned so that he said, 'Nevermind. I just remembered what Neb did to my people in presumptuosuly going beyond what I wanted him to do. Scratch that last prophesy about Egypt's desolation.' The implications are ridiculous.

    English 101 for thirdwitness.

    I've noticed that you usually use 'prophecy' and 'prophesy' - and their inflected forms - incorrectly. So for your benefit, prophecy (PROF-uh-see) is a noun meaning 'prediction', and prophesy (prof-uh-SIGH) is a verb meaning 'predict'.

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