I have been having an argument in this thread, which originally was about the trinity (oh no, not again...):
http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/10/121719/1.ashx
...with Mondo1, about what the text in Revelation 1.17 means. I don`t want this thread to turn into another trinity-thread, let`s just keep it to the phrase "the first and the last", and Revelation, and Jesus` status in this text. The passage in Rev 1.17 reads:
And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as one dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying, Fear not; I am the first and the last, 18 and the Living one; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive for evermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades.
The argument raised by Mondo, and from this jw-link: http://www.scripturaltruths.com/jesus/firstlast/
...is that this phrase, "The first and the last", which is a title exclusively given to God in the OT, Isaiah 41:4; 44:6; 48:12, and repeated in Revelation 22. 12-13, which is also (most probably) God (the Father) speaking. But, in Rev.1.17 it is Jesus uttering these words, "the first and the last". Trinitarians therefore claim that this means that Jesus is also (part of) God. The anti-trinitarians (such as jws) deny this, and an attempted explanation of Jesus`use of the expression is given in the link above ("scripturaltruths"). The basic claim of the jws here (I believe that "scripturaltruths is a jw-site) is that the phrase following the "I am the first and the last", "...and the Living One, and I was dead, and behold, I am alive for evermore...", nullifies the claim of divinity in the preceding expression! I have argued against this, by trying to show that claiming that the expression (as a whole) rests on a jw-premiss of Jesus` mortality: That the meaning of the expression "the first and the last" is one that involves eternal existence (outside of time), whereas Jesus Christ, in the jw-view, was never one in eternal existence! - and that he therefore doesn`t (in the jw-view) fulfill the meaning of the expression "the first and the last", and that it is therefore they insist on this alternative explanation of his use of the phrase. So, what do all you people with Bible-knowledge think? Is Jesus, when using the expression "the first and the last" only claiming that he was the first to be raised from the dead, or do you think that when he is using this expression "the first and the last", that he is claiming divinity? (Somehow on equal terms as the Father?)