JCanon,
c. the time of desolation of the land of Judah, which is historically unaccurate (since the exile only lasted about 50 years, cf. the 1st "7 weeks" of Daniel 9, and did not imply a complete desolation to begin with), but seems to be in view in 2 Chronicles 36 (and later in Josephus, although he does know from Berossus the actual duration of the exile). I tend to think that this third interpretation (c) was worked along with the first one (a) into the extant text of Jeremiah 25:11, for the part: "This whole land shall become a ruin and a waste, and these nations shall serve the king of Babylon seventy years."
You forgot to mention Josephus' interpretation of the 70 years as beginning with the last deportation and ending the 1st of Cyrus. It doesn't matter if it is believed to be accurate or not. That is precisely where he places the 70 years in fulfillment of Jeremiah's prophecy, thus the 70 years of "servitude" specifically are for the "poor people" remaining from those killed off in Egypt. He clearly indicates the land lay desolate for 70 years after this last deportation. That is a clear contradiction of the shorter NB Period. But it is quite consistent with the Bible's reference at 2 Chronicles that those last deported of those "remaining from the sword" would serve the kings of Babylon for 70 years while the land paid back its sabbaths.
You should definitely read better what you paste before replying... I did refer to Josephus' own interpretation, although I did it briefly. I agree that it most likely implies the idea (not the fact!) of a 70-year desolation, which I think also underlies 2 Chronicles 36 and perhaps the final redaction of Jeremiah 25:11, both in the TM and the LXX (where the notion of "nations serving the king of Babylon" is replaced with the different idea of Judean exile into "the nations").
However that is a clear contradiction, not only to the so-called "secular" N-B chronology, but to other scriptural references to the 70 years as well (Jeremiah 25:11bc; 29 as starting before Jerusalem's fall, Zechariah and Daniel as running after the return from exile; re-read my posts).
It is clear from the chronological indications of the context (1:7 = 519 BC, 7:1 = 518 BC) that those "seventy years" have kept on running after the return from exile.
It is NOT clear that those seventy years kept running after the return, because it clearly asks "how long will you yourself not show mercy to Jerusalem and to the cities of Judah, whom you have denounced these seventy years?"
The denouncement of the cities clearly means their destruction. This denouncement had not ended yet. This was the 70th year of the denouncement that was continuing past 70 years now. Showing "mercy to these cities" meant the ending of that denouncement period. So only with the revised chronology would you think this "denouncement" continued past the return, when normally the denouncement would end when the return occurred and the cities were rebuilt again. YOU are suggesting that some sense of the denouncement was continuing after they returned and after they began to rebuild, as if that incident was insiginficant to God having shown any degree of mercy to these cities that remained "denounced." That makes not sense, especially compared to when you follow the JEWISH TRADITIONAL HISTORY of the 70 years as provided by Josephus which begins the 70 years in year 23. That means the 70 years was still yet to be completed in 4 years. So per Jewish historian Josephus, 70 years after the destruction of the Jerusalem the Jews still would have been in exile. Thus there is no conflicting concept of this "denouncement" and God showing "mercy to the cities" in relation to their return and why their return didn't automatically end the denouncement. So this scripture alone contradicts the pagan revised chronology.
I thought you were going to repeat the WT's (and scholar's) misunderstanding that "these 70 years" refer to a period that had ended years before. This (as I pointed out in my post # 8720) is a philological impossibility. But what you are doing is even worse. It would imply that Zechariah's references are made before the return from exile (i.e., from Babylon) which contradicts the whole content of the book and the specific dating of the oracles...
Unless you allow for the fact that scriptural mentions of the "70 years" actually refer to different periods (some of them approximative, others simply imaginary), you have no way to "reconcile" them. So in addition to its obviously fantastic character your revision of universal chronology still stumbles on the same textual diversity as every other which maintains one chronological reference for all "70-years" texts...