That's nonsense if you are trying to compare Jews and Romans in the first century. Roman women of that time were far more emancipated. Jewish women could get in trouble for merely talking to a strange man, and no one would even believe their testimony since it wasn't admissible as legal evidence in a trial.
That's not accurate, dear BTS (again, peace to you!). Under ROMAN rule... Jewish women could get in such trouble. Because the Romans were imposing THEIR views... of women and the positions of men... ON the Jews. Prior to that, Jewish women had GREAT freedom. It was the removal of such freedoms due to the occupation by and rule of Rome that was causing the problem (between the Jews and Rome).
That is right there in the Gospels. They couldn't read Torah at synagogue--
Now, wait... think about that. If they COULDN'T... all along... why would PAUL have to make that known to them? Why did it have to be HIS "rule"? What were they doing BEFORE Paul said, "I do not permit..."???
if they were taught to read at all.
Under the previous Hellenistic rule, Jewish women were not only educated but many possessed wealth and status. ROMAN law, however, attempted to undermine that. As I posted previously, although Roman law could be BENT... it could not be BROKEN. And ROME expected women to act like wives and mothers. That was, in their eyes, the true VALUE of women.
They had no religious roles whatsoever, unlike Rome and Greece, which had priestesses and oracles.
Again, you err. They had priesteses (think Miriam)... judges (think Deborah)... prophetesses (think Anna)... and women who were in business for themselves (think Lydia... and the "wife" of Proverbs 31). Prior to exile to Babylon, women were GREATLY regarded in the Jewish culture. Even more so today. They believe THEIR "guiding light"... the Shekinah... is FEMALE, not male.
What was extraordinary was how a Jew (Jesus) treated women in contrast with the conventions of his time and culture.
Because HE knew what JEWISH Law taught as to women... versus the ROMAN laws in effect at the time! Which is the POINT.
Roman woman had far more freedom.
Wealthy Roman women, yes. Even so, until the 6th century BCE, their "freedom" was exercised from within the shadow... of their husbands (or sons). I'm not making this up, dear one - the information is out there. I first learned of it in my "Women's Studies" course at university. It didn't make the SENSE it's making to me NOW, though... because I never applied it here. Until my Lord told me to.
The early Church probably reflected this, but Paul put the kibosh on women in the congregations under his care.
He DID. I am NOT saying that he DIDN'T. I am only sharing WHY he did: so that they would be KEPT SAFE. NOT "saved"... as in, salvation "comes through" childbearing... which is what some of YOU are saying he meant. Seriously... if THAT were TRUE, then every pregnant christian women... is saved in Christ! But why save pregnant women... and not, say, elderly women? Or young girls? Heck, the men who got such women pregnant? Why are THEY "saved" by such, as well? What is SO special about being pregnant... that it puts a woman in line for salvation??
Come ON, dear ones... THINK!!!!!! You can't SEE what Paul meant... because you are (1) so blinded by your view of ME, and (2) so SURE he was placing a misogynic burden on the women... that the truth of it cannot "shine" through. Heck, some of you don't even believe HE wrote it... yet, keep accusing him of false motive! Seriously??
Again, NO ONE has to take MY word for it, not at ALL. ALL of you can ASK... for yourselves. If you don't want to condescend to DO that... then whose fault is it if you DON'T see?
Again, peace to you!
A slave of Christ,
SA