Showing That Magics Cannot Be Equivocated To Miracles:
Illustrations:
You have two cars. They look exactly the same. They are both brand new, being driven for the first time with 0 mileage. They are the same shape, size, color, and have all the same features on the outside. But one is a hybrid car that runs off a battery and the other car runs on premium gas. Now will you ever hear a car dealership call these two cars the same, sell them for the same price, and make absolutely no distinction between the two? Of course not. You would definitely want to know whether your car is a hybrid or a regular car no matter how similar they look on the outside. That is the difference between magic and miracles. On the outside, they may appear to be the same, and allow you to reach a particular destination (supernatural repercussions), but the source (the inside of the car) is what makes them different. That is why one is condemned (magic) and one is approved by God (miracles).
Now here's an illustration. Imagine that your license as an attorney has been suspended temporarily and you are ordered by the state board to not practice any form of law, as your license is now suspended. Would you violate the law if you study your old college law books, examine precedent court cases, and learn new techniques by watching other lawyers present their cases? Of course not. You were instructed to not practice law.
You have two identical ovens, side by side. One is conventional, the other is convectional. Surely, when you are baking, you will note that there are some recipes that call for different instructions when using a conventional or a convectional oven. Now why is that, elderelite? In fact when baking, if you are using a conventional oven you might have to use a completely different temperature than if you were using a convectional oven. Both ovens are identical in model and both get the job of baking done. So why do some recipes call for different instructions for two seemingly identical ovens who simply have a different SOURCE of energy (speaking on a molecular level)? Is it because that source is important and makes a big difference?
So you are saying that how the electricity is used makes the difference and the distinction between the two ovens, correct?
So I am saying that how the supernatural force is used makes the difference and the distinction between miracles and magic.
A miracle's supernatural force is under the manipulation of God, a magic's supernatural force is under the manipulation of something other than God.
The "How" is the defining difference as you showed us quite clearly, elderelite.
The Bible vs. jwfacts:
Jehovah says "YOU must not look for omens, and YOU must not practice magic." (Lev 19:26)
Jwfacts says: All the people in the Bible DID practice magic and there was no distinction between the practice of magic and miracles performed of God, directly contradicting God's word.
Etymologically Speaking:
Etymological origins of magic: Middle English magique, from Middle French, from Latin magice, from Greek magike, feminine of magikosMagian, magical, from magos magus, sorcerer , of Iranian origin; akin to Old Persian maguš sorcerer
Etymological origins of miracle: Middle English, from Anglo-French, from Late Latin miraculum, from Latin, a wonder, marvel, from mirarito wonder at
Lexicographically Speaking:
After looking up the word magic a thesarus we find the following associated synonyms:bewitchery, bewitchment, conjuring, devilry(or deviltry) , diablerie, enchantment, ensorcellment, mojo, necromancy, sorcery, thaumaturgy, voodooism, witchcraft, witchery, wizardry
Now logically if two words can be used interchangeably and they have the same meaning, you should likewise find *SIMILAR* synonyms when you look up each word. But such an occurrence cannot be found with the words 'magic' and 'miracle'.
After looking up the word miracle in a thesarus we find the following associated synonyms: caution, flash, marvel, wonder, phenomenon, portent, prodigy, sensation, splendor
What If There's No Apparent Distinction From Onlookers:
We are not allowing the 'onlookers' to define what is magic for us, anymore than we would allow the pagan idol worshippers to define who/what is 'God' for us. That is a fallacious and weak argument, because of course those who believe in and practice sorcery, witchcraft, and other forms of spiritism would only view such a thing as magic as there is no distinction from their standpoint.
Of course, if I am not a Hebrew, I am likely a pagan who believes in thousands of deities. If we are talking about something of a Biblical theological nature, should the pagan's viewpoint be weighed equivocally with that of the Hebrews? Should it be argued that the Bible teaches that there a hundreds and hundreds of 'God's' because many pagan deities are mentioned and when many miracles were performed, independent observers couldn't attribute the difference to Jehovah or one of their gods? Of course not. This isn't about neutrality from a certain individual's standpoint, but this is about the distinction that the Bible makes for us. We could argue in circles all day long about what consistutes a miracle and what consistitutes magic, but when we are speaking from a strictly Biblical perspective, the distinction between the two is made clear.
Use of a Similar Adjective (Miraculous):
We have now moved from the realm of nouns to the realm of adjectives. This is where the distinction becomes muddy because the practice itself is not being described, however, a description of said practice is being described. Let me illustrate it for you. You have two words of a religious association: bishop and minister. Now I'm sure if you go to the dictionary you can find that both nouns can be described as 'religious', perhaps even more specificially having to do with 'Christian religion'. Would you conclude that the word minister is the lexicographical equivalent of bishop and that they should be used interchangeably because as adjectives they are described using similar words? Of course not. A minister can simply be defined as a preacher or a servant, while a bishop MUST have some form of ecclesiastical authority, yet they are both described and related to a religious nature. I hope this helps.
Casting Spells?:
There are those that will argue that the use of amen is essentially the same as the use of abracadabra. But is this really the case?
This word in both English and Greek is a transliteration from the Hebrew 'a·men′. The meaning is “so be it,” or “surely.” The Hebrew root word from which it is drawn ('a·man′) means “be faithful; be trustworthy.” When a person says something that is agreeable, the term "amen" is often used.
Now if someone says something that you agree with, are you likely to say abracadabra? Why or why not?
