So, where DID the 1914 timeline go awry?

by Xander 163 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    Hi Earnest,

    : Earnest : I've found the field of biblical chronology a difficult one to comprehend.

    : AlanF : There is another aspect to this. The Society argues that the captivity at Babylon (Jer. 29:10; NWT) and the desolation of Judah both lasted precisely 70 years. You can look up references for yourself on this. But there is a big problem: Because of the four-month trip time between Jerusalem and Babylon, if the desolation of Judah lasted precisely 70 years, the captivity at Babylon would have been only about 69 years and four months -- which contradicts the Society's claims.

    : scholar : You cannot interpret this subject just by one or two texts but all must be brought together in order to make sense

    : It does seem to me that there is some ambiguity as to whether the seventy years referred to the captivity at Babylon or the desolation of Judah:

    That's right, and that's because the 70 year period was neither of these things. Rather, it was exactly what Jer. 25:11b states: "... these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years." The scripture says nothing about 70 years of captivity of any of "these nations" at Babylon, and it says nothing about 70 years of desolation for any land. It says clearly: 70 years of servitude to the king of Babylon. Therefore the prophecy is that Babylon would have supremacy over Judah and the surrounding nations for a period of seventy years. And this is precisely what a proper translation of Jeremiah 29:10 says:

    For this is what Jehovah has said, In accord with the fulfilling of seventy years for Babylon I shall turn my attention to you people, and I will establish toward you my good word in bringing you back to this place.

    We'll get back to this scripture later, but for the moment, note the emphasis: "70 years for Babylon, i.e., 70 years of Babylonian supremacy.

    According to Jeremiah's prophecy, the 70-year period of servitude was inevitable. According to other portions of his prophecies, whether that servitude was to be fulfilled while a nation stayed in its own land, or was at Babylon, was entirely up to the people. If they surrendered peacefully to Babylon, they would stay on their own land. If not, then many would be destroyed and the remainder would be led captive to Babylon. Here is what Jeremiah stated about this in Jer. 27:4-18:

    ""This is what Jehovah of armies, the God of Israel, has said; this is what YOU should say to YOUR masters, 5 I myself have made the earth, mankind and the beasts that are upon the surface of the earth by my great power and by my stretched-out arm; and I have given it to whom it has proved right in my eyes. 6 And now I myself have given all these lands into the hand of Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon, my servant; and even the wild beasts of the field I have given him to serve him. 7 And all the nations must serve even him and his son and his grandson until the time even of his own land comes, and many nations and great kings must exploit him as a servant.

    8 ""And it must occur that the nation and the kingdom that will not serve him, even Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon; and the one that will not put its neck under the yoke of the king of Babylon, with the sword and with the famine and with the pestilence I shall turn my attention upon that nation, is the utterance of Jehovah, until I shall have finished them off by his hand.

    9 ""And as for YOU men, do not listen to YOUR prophets and to YOUR practicers of divination and to YOUR dreamers and to YOUR practicers of magic and to YOUR sorcerers, who are saying to YOU: "YOU men will not serve the king of Babylon." 10 For falsehood is what they are prophesying to YOU, for the purpose of having YOU taken far away from off YOUR ground; and I shall have to disperse YOU, and YOU will have to perish.

    11 ""And as for the nation that will bring its neck under the yoke of the king of Babylon and actually serve him, I will also let it rest upon its ground, is the utterance of Jehovah, and it will certainly cultivate it and dwell in it.""

    12 Even to Zedekiah the king of Judah I spoke according to all these words, saying: "Bring YOUR necks under the yoke of the king of Babylon and serve him and his people and keep on living. 13 Why should you yourself and your people die by the sword, by the famine and by the pestilence according to what Jehovah has spoken to the nation that does not serve the king of Babylon? 14 And do not listen to the words of the prophets that are saying to YOU men, YOU will not serve the king of Babylon, because falsehood is what they are prophesying to YOU.

    15 "For I have not sent them, is the utterance of Jehovah, but they are prophesying in my name falsely, to the end that I shall disperse YOU, and YOU will have to perish, YOU men and the prophets that are prophesying to YOU."

    16 And to the priests and to all this people I spoke, saying: "This is what Jehovah has said, Do not listen to the words of YOUR prophets that are prophesying to YOU, saying: "Look! The utensils of the house of Jehovah are being brought back from Babylon soon now!" For falsehood is what they are prophesying to YOU. 17 Do not listen to them. Serve the king of Babylon and keep on living. Why should this city become a devastated place? 18 But if they are prophets and if the word of Jehovah does exist with them, let them, please, beseech Jehovah of armies, that the utensils that are remaining over in the house of Jehovah and the house of the king of Judah and in Jerusalem may not come into Babylon."

    In the above passage Jeremiah is explicit that if the Jews would serve the king of Babylon willingly, they would not be made captive and their land would not become a devastated place. Do you see how the Bible itself makes a distinction? This is something that the Watchtower Society, and JW apologists like "scholar" and Rolf Furuli never deal with. Why? Because it is obvious that they cannot reconcile these clear scriptures with JW tradition.

    JWs also ignore the problem I brought out: they gloss over the simple fact that if their notion of "70 years of desolation" is exactly 70 years, then their notion of "captivity" must necessarily be no more than 69 years and four months. Yet Watchtower publications never deal with this problem, and like Furuli, use obfuscatory language to cover it over. The 70 years cannot refer both to a period of exactly 70 years of desolation and exactly 70 years of captivity. I'm not sure that you understood this point.

    Now let's consider the scriptures you quoted:

    : 2 Chronicles 36:21 "...All the days of lying desolated [the land of Judah] kept sabbath, to fulfill seventy years."

    This scripture does not actually equate the period of lying desolated with a 70 year period. It can be understood this way, but it can also be understood in other ways. Here is the point: 2 Chron. 36:20 is absolutely unambiguous in stating that the servitude of the Jews to the king of Babylon ended at the fall of Babylon, which was in 539 B.C. If we attempt to say that 2 Chron. 36:21 means that a 70-year period of desolation ended in 537 B.C., then we have a contradiction. Watchtower apologists have always ignored this contradiction. I do not. Because verse 20, as we have seen, is not ambiguous, but verse 21 is, the only way to avoid a contradiction is to understand verse 21 in a way that avoids a contradiction with verse 20. Carl Jonsson explains very well how verse 21 ought to be understood so as to avoid a contradiction (The Gentile Times Reconsidered; third edition, pp. 221-2):

    D-1: The sabbath rest of the land

    A cursory reading of verse 21 could give the impression that the Chronicler states that the land had enjoyed a sabbath rest of seventy years, and that this had been predicted by Jeremiah. But Jeremiah does not speak of the seventy years in terms of allowing the land to pay off its sabbath years. In fact, there is no reference at all to a sabbath rest for the land in his book.

    Therefore Ezra's words, "until the land had paid off its sabbaths; all the days of lying desolated it kept sabbath," could not be a fulfillment of "Jehovah's word by the mouth of Jeremiah." The two clauses about the sabbath rest are, as has been observed by Bible commentators, a reference to another prediction, found at Leviticus, chapter 26.

    Among other things, this chapter forewarns that, if the people did not obey the law of the sabbatical years (discussed in the preceding chapter, Leviticus 25), they would be scattered among the nations and their land would be desolated. In this way the land would be allowed to "pay off its sabbaths":

    At that time the land will pay off its sabbaths all the days of its lying desolated, while YOU are in the land of YOUR enemies. At that time the land will keep sabbath, as it must repay its sabbaths. All the days of its lying desolated it will keep sabbath, for the reason that it did not keep sabbath during YOUR sabbaths when YOU were dwelling upon it. -- Leviticus 26:34-35, NW.

    Like Daniel earlier, the writer of the Chronicles understood the desolation of Judah to be a fulfillment of this curse predicted in the law of Moses. He therefore inserted this prediction from Leviticus 26 to show that it was fulfilled after the final deportation to Babylon, exactly as was predicted through Moses, "while you are in the land of your enemies." By inserting the two clauses from Leviticus 26, the Chronicler did not mean to say that the land enjoyed a sabbath rest of seventy years, as this was not predicted, either by Moses or by Jeremiah. He does not tell explicitly how long it rested, only that "all the days of lying desolated it kept sabbath." -- 2 Chronicles 36:20.[37]

    As with Daniel, the main interest of the Chronicler was the return of the exiles, and therefore he points out that they had to remain in Babylonia until two prophecies had been fulfilled: (1) that of Jeremiah on the seventy years of supremacy "for Babylon," and (2) that in Leviticus on the desolation and sabbath rest for the land of Judah. These prophecies should not be mixed up or confused, as is often done. Not only do they refer to periods of different character and different lengths; they also refer to different nations. But as the two periods were closely connected in that the end of one period was contingent on the end of the other, the Chronicler, like Daniel, brought them together.

    Footnote [37]: The actual length of the land's sabbath rest was 49 years, from the final desolation and depopulation in 587 B.C.E., until the return of the exiles in 538. Perhaps it is just a coincidence, but this was also the maximal period during which a Hebrew could be deprived of the proprietorship of his ancestral inheritance, according to the law of land tenure. If he became so poor that he had to sell his land, it could not be sold beyond reclaim. If it could not be bought back, the purchaser had to return it to him at the next jubilee. -- Leviticus 25:8-28.

    If the 49 years of sabbath rest corresponded to the exact number of sabbatical years that had been neglected by the Israelites, the whole period of violation of the law would be 49 x 7 = 343 years. If this period extended to 587 B.C.E., its beginning would date from about 930 B.C.E. Interestingly, modern chronologers who have carefully examined both the Biblical and extra-Biblical evidence, usually date the division of the kingdom to 930 B.C.E. or thereabouts. (F. X. Kugler, for example, has 930, E. R. Thiele and K. A. Kitchen 931/30, and W. H. Barnes 932 B.C.E.) As this national disaster resulted in a massive break away from the temple cult in Jerusalem by a majority of the people, it is not unreasonable to think that an extensive neglect of the sabbatical years also dates from this time.

    : Jeremiah 29:10 "For this is what Jehovah has said, 'In accord with the fulfilling of seventy years at Babylon I shall turn my attention to you people..."

    As I said above, I believe that a proper translation of this passage should read "for Babylon" instead of "at Babylon". I won't get into details of Hebrew language here, since people more knowledgeable than I have already done so (Carl Jonsson in The Gentile Times Reconsidered, pp. 209-214; Greg Stafford in Three Dissertations on the Teachings of Jehovah's Witnesses, pp. 243-9). However, I want to note a few points in favor of the reading "for Babylon".

    I've checked about 50 different English Bibles on this passage. Only the King James Version and its derivatives, and a couple of other translations have "at Babylon". The rest have "for Babylon" or something along that line.

    The most important point in favor of "for Babylon" is that it is consistent with Jer. 25:11 and the other points I've brought out. We've already seen that the servitude of the Jews to Babylon ended in 539 B.C. with the fall of Babylon -- and there is simply no getting around this. But the Jews remained in Babylon at least another year or two (538 or 537 B.C. are the dates preferred by historians for the return from exile). Therefore the Jews would have been "at Babylon" for a year or two after the 70 years of servitude ended -- a direct contradiction of Watchtower teaching. But even if one rejects this argument, a careful consideration of the entirety of verse 10 forces rejection of the Society's claim for a reading "at Babylon". Note the NWT rendering:

    For this is what Jehovah has said, In accord with the fulfilling of seventy years at Babylon I shall turn my attention to you people, and I will establish toward you my good word in bringing you back to this place.

    The Society claims that the 70 years were not years of captivity of the Jews "at Babylon", but were precisely 70 years of desolation of Judah. They back this up by explaining that the desolation began about Sept/Oct of 607 B.C., shortly after Gedaliah was murdered and the last of the Jews fled Judah, and that they ended about Sept/Oct of 537 B.C., when Ezra states that the Jews were back in their cities (Ezra 3:1). But, as I have mentioned several times now, if the desolation of Judah were exactly 70 years, then the captivity at Babylon could only have been about 69 years and four months, at the most.Further, look carefully at the last part of verse 10, which I put in bold above. If the captivity at Babylon ended when the Jews departed for Jerusalem, and the 70 years ended four months later when the Jews arrived in Judah, then the 70 years cannot refer to the captivity at Babylon. Thus, by the Society's own reasoning with respect to the period of desolation, the phrase "at Babylon" cannot refer to the 70 years. However, the reading "for Babylon" is perfectly in line with Jer. 25:11, 12 and everything else I have so far considered. Verse 10 says that "in accord with" or "in connection with" the fulfilling or completion of the 70 years for Babylon, Jehovah would turn his attention to his people and bring them back to Judah.

    What then, do you think is a more likely understanding of Jer. 29:10? One that is self-contradictory and that contradicts other scriptures? Or one that seamlessly reconciles all of the scriptures and is internally consistent? I think you know the answer.

    : Ezra 1:1,2 "And in the first year of Cyrus the king of Persia [i.e. after the king of Babylon had been called to account], that Jehovah's word from the mouth of Jeremiah might be accomplished, Jehovah roused the spirit of Cyrus the king of Persia so that he caused a cry to pass through all his realm, and also in writing, saying: 'This is what Cyrus the king of Persia has said, "...[Jehovah] himself has commissioned me to build him a house in Jerusalem" ' "

    This scripture is perfectly in accord with the explanations I've given above.

    : Flavius Josephus, To Epaphroditus on the Antiquities of the Jews in Answer to Apion (Book I, section 19) "...he [the Chaldean historian Berosus in the third century B.C.E.] gives us a catalogue of the posterity of Noah, and adds the years of their chronology, and at length comes down to Nabolassar, who was king of Babylon, and of the Chaldeans. And when he was relating the acts of this king, he describes to us how he sent his son Nabuchodonosor against Egypt, and against our land, with a great army, upon his being informed that they had revolted from him; and how, by that means, he subdued them all, and set our temple that was at Jerusalem on fire; nay and removed our people entirely out of their own country, and transferred them to Babylon; when it so happened that our city was desolate during the interval of seventy years, untill the days of Cyrus king of Persia."

    : Flavius Josephus, Antiquities of the Jews (Book X, chapter IX, paragraph 7) "...but the King of Babylon, who brought out the two tribes, placed no other nation in their country, by which means all Judea and Jerusalem, and the temple, continued to be a desert for seventy years"

    Ok, fine. But Josephus also wrote in Against Apion I, 21, that in the Hebrew Scriptures:

    ... it is recorded that Nabochodonosor in the eighteenth year of his reign devastated our temple, that for fifty years it ceased to exist, that in the second year of Cyrus the foundations were laid, and lastly that in the second year of the reign of Darius it was completed.

    Carl Jonsson comments on this as follows (GTR, p. 299):

    ... it should be observed that Josephus' statement about the "fifty years" at Against Apion I, 21 is preceded by his presentation of Berossus' figures for the reigns of the Neo-Babylonian kings, and these figures show there was a period of fifty years, not seventy, from the 18th year of Nebuchadnezzar to the second year of Cyrus. Josephus himself emphasizes that Berossus' figures are "both correct and in accordance with our books." Thus the context, too, requires the "fifty years" at Against Apion I, 21.

    I've checked Jonsson's statements against my own copy of Against Apion, which is the translation by H. St. Thackeray published in the Loeb Classical Library volumes. His comments are correct.

    Now, it seems to me that your quotations of Josephus are taken from the "Appendix to Chapter 14" in the Society's 1981 book Let Your Kingdom Come. One wonders why they failed to mention that Josephus' latest work Against Apion seems to contradict the two earlier works. This smacks of still more scholastic dishonesty. At best, the Society ought to dismiss Josephus' testimony on this point. However, because Against Apion is Josephus' latest work, and in this work he gives actual figures for various king's reigns that add up to the 50-year figure, whereas in the earlier works he simply states a 70-year figure (and a careful consideration of his statements indicates that he may well have been talking about the entire period where Jerusalem was dominated by Babylon, i.e., 605 through 538/7 B.C., which adds up to 69 or 70 years if we count inclusively), it can be argued that Josephus actually supports the fact that the actual desolation of Judah lasted 50 years. So, no matter which way you cut it, Josephus does not support the Society's chronology.

    : So, I do see merit in scholar's advocating a broader consideration of the subject. That is true of most of what one reads in the Bible. When we are looking for both internal harmony and agreement with secular chronology then the whole picture is essential for understanding individual texts.

    In principle I completely agree. The problem with "scholar" and other JW apologists is that they are simply not honest about applying this principle. Have you seen "scholar" ever even attempt to address any of my arguments? No. Has he, in the two or so years he has been coming on this board, ever attempted to address my point about 2 Chron. 36:20? No. He has consistently done what you've seen him do in this thread, namely, offer excuses as to why he should not. This is gross intellectual dishonesty.

    I think that you can see by now that the discussions I have presented do not gloss over important points. Of course, most of what I've learned about Neo-Babylonian chronology, I've learned from Carl Jonsson and from a few other references. Nevertheless, I've checked out Jonsson's claims as thoroughly as I can (and have spent thousands of dollars on source references to do this) and so I do not simply parrot what he says -- I check it thoroughly before I present his or my arguments.

    : Earnest : The other course one could follow is to throw out the baby with the bath water and simply say the bible chronology is dubious and it is simply a matter of faith.

    : AlanF : That would be throwing out the baby with the bathwater bigtime!...The date would be based purely on their claim to divine direction, which in turn is based on the validity of the date.

    : Belief in 1914 has involved both chronology and faith that the sign of the times were fulfilled. I suggest that the majority have always accepted the chronology because they accepted the signs of the times too.

    I suppose that's true, even when Russell began his publishing career. Of course, they were wrong before 1914 and after 1914 about both the chronology and the supposed "signs of the times". Russell claimed that all of these "signs" were evident as early as about 1880, and he kept it up until he died. Rutherford updated these claims around or shortly after 1923, when he began claiming that the signs were evident after 1914 (and he reinterpreted Russell's "earthquake sign" from being "political upheavals" to literal earthquakes) whereas Russell claimed that they were all evident before 1914. And today we have enough information to understand that these supposed signs are entirely imaginary, because they are either of the same intensity, or less, than before 1914.

    : Earnest : I have also noted [Furuli's] obfuscation of 539 (above) which confirms the impression of not being altogether on the level.

    : AlanF : I'm glad you stated this explicitly.

    : After posting that I reflected on Furuli's statement that "there can be some uncertainty with [539], due to the witness of the tablet Strm Kambys 400, which is not as good as we would have wished". You also suggest that Strm Kambys 400 is defective in your 'Discussion of Historical Evidence' (http://www.geocities.com/osarsif/gentile2.htm)

    No, you misunderstood what I wrote. Let me quote it for you:

    If the Society's criticism of the astronomical diaries were valid, it would also apply to Strm.Kambys.400. Like the astronomical diary VAT 4956, this is a copy of an earlier original. In fact, it may hardly even be termed a copy. The eminent expert on astronomical texts, F. X. Kugler, pointed out as early as 1903 that this tablet is only partly a copy. The copyist was evidently working from a defective text, and therefore tried to fill in the gaps in the text by his own calculations. Thus only a portion of Strm.Kambys.400 contains true observations. The rest are additions by a rather unskilled copyist from a much later period. Kugler commented that "not one of the astronomical texts I know of offers so many contradictions and unsolved riddles as Strm.Kambys.400." Nevertheless, it supports the 539 B.C. date and so the Society uses it. This is entirely proper, because it is supported by many other lines of evidence.

    Note the last two statements in the quoted passage. The point is that, despite a number of deficiencies, the text is not defective with respect to establishing the 539 date. Why? Because it is consistent with many other lines of evidence that lead to that date.

    Furuli is again hedging his bets.

    Note that the material in the link you provided was largely borrowed from the 2nd edition of The Gentile Times Reconsidered and was compiled around 1993.

    : and so while I have no knowledge of this astronomical diary myself I concluded Furuli's doubts were genuine and edited that comment from my post.

    I seriously doubt that his "doubts" are genuine. He's hedging his bets because he knows very well that using a text like Strm.Kambys.400, that has many problems, in order to establish the 539 date, while at the same time rejecting much better texts such as VAT 4956, is hypocritical and inconsistent. He knows that the only reason, ultimately, that he accepts the one and rejects the other, is that the Society tells him that this is what he must do in order to remain a Jehovah's Witness in good standing. This is why I remain convinced that Furuli and most other JW critics I've encountered are intellectually dishonest.

    : Whether or not he has been dishonest in other matters I wish to withdraw my criticism above.

    Fair enough. But with the additional information I've provided here, perhaps you'll change your mind again.

    AlanF

  • scholar
    scholar

    Hi Earnest

    Why listen to the monkey (Alan F) when you can listen to the organ grinder (Carl Jonsson). Jonsson in his GTR, 3rd Edition,1998.pp.191-235 discusses the seventy years in full. The most imporatant section begins pp.228 to 235. Jonsson's argument rests on Jeremiah 29:10 and the controversial translation of a Hebrew preposition. Why would you base your entire argument upon 'for ' or 'at'. as a basis for determining whether the seventy years is only one of servitude or as clearly stated in scripture, a period of desolation.

    Jonsson is uncertain as to whether the seventy years ran from 605 to 539 or 609 to 539 BCE. But other scholars postulate other dates to accommodate their own special theories. As I have said earlier the seventy years began with a dramatic historical event, namely the fall odf Jerusalem introducing a watershed in Jewish history and ending with an equally draatic historical event, namely their release under Cyrus in 537. The Society's interprestation best fits the scriptural testimony of seventy years of desolation and subsequent exile under Babylonoian rule finally ending under Cyrus

    scholar BA MA Studies in Religion

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    Hi scholar,

    Thank you for your further thoughts on the subject. Your point that the seventy years begins and ends with a dramatic historical event certainly has a sense of completion to it, but it seems clear that the closing historical event is the fall of Babylon rather than the release of the Jews under Cyrus. AlanF has referred to several scriptures that show this, namely:

    2 Chronicles 36:20 : "Furthermore, he [the king of the Chaldeans] carried off those remaining from the sword captive to Babylon, and they came to be servants to him and his sons until the royalty of Persia began to reign"

    Jeremiah 25:11, 12 : " 'And all this land must become a devastated place, an object of astonishment, and these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years. And it must occur that when seventy years have been fulfilled I [Jehovah] shall call to account against the king of Babylon and against that nation,' is the utterance of Jehovah, 'their error, even against the land of the Chaldeans...' "

    Jeremiah 27:6, 7 : "And now I myself [Jehovah of armies, the God of Israel] have given all these lands into the hand of Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon, my servant; and even the wild beasts of the field I have given him to serve him. And all the nations must serve even him and his son and his grandson until the time even of his own land comes..."

    Regardless of what other scriptures say, the clear witness of these scriptures that the seventy years ends with the fall of Babylon is very convincing. If it says, as it does, that "when seventy years have been fulfilled I [Jehovah] shall call to account against the king of Babylon" how is it possible to reason that the seventy years ends after the king of Babylon is called to account ?

    Why listen to the monkey (Alan F) when you can listen to the organ grinder (Carl Jonsson).

    If you do not first address what AlanF has said, it is quite irrelevant to the discussion what Carl Jonsson has to say. But I consider what Alan says because (i) he supports what he says with quotations in context and references to his sources, (ii) he addresses each point that I raise, (iii) he is willing to admit to making mistakes when he does so, (iv) he calls a spade a spade, and (v) he doesn't feel the need to broadcast his academic qualifications to bolster his arguments. Conversely, although you have addressed a couple of posts to me you have chosen to totally ignore my question of Jan 4, 2003 18:34 :

    I do wonder, in view of the limited secular support for 607, the false expectations of the time, and the complexity of biblical chronology, whether 1914 would not have been dropped, as 1874 and 1975 have been, if the First World War had not made the year indelible. What do you think ?

    I must say that I also find your general approach quite unscholarly. What do I mean ? Consider your reply to onacruse (Jan 4, 2003 15:43) who had asked for evidence that the 7 times of Daniel are a typological period of 2520 years. In your reply you said :

    Anyway,evidence for the Gentile Times can be adduced from journal articles listed in the Bibliography at page 999 in Luke 1:35-24:53, Vol.3, Word Biblical Commentary, John Nolland: Word Books, Dallas Texas, 1989.

    Respecting Daniel, you will find the section on the tree dream in the Anchor Bible Commentary most enlightening.

    There are several problems I have with this. It is very vague. "Gentile Times can be adduced from journal articles listed..." What journal articles are these ? If one can get hold of the three volumes of the Word Biblical Commentary on Luke, the third volume (Luke 18:35-24:53) lists the following articles:

    Braumann, G. "Die lukanische Interpretation der Zerstorung Jerusalems." NovT 6 (1963) 120-27.

    Conzelmann, H. Luke. 125-32.

    Dodd, C.H. "The Fall of Jerusalem." JRS 37 (1947) 47-54; reprinted in More New Testament Studies. Grand Rapids : Eerdmans, 1968. 69-83.

    Fluckiger, F. "Luk.21.20-24 und die Zerstorung Jerusalems." TZ 28 (1972) 385-90.

    Giblin, C.H.The Destruction of Jerusalem according to Luke's Gospel : A Historical-Typological Moral. AnBib 107. Rome : Biblical Institute Press, 1985.

    Holst, R. "God's Truth in a Kaleidoscope : Using a Synopsis." CurTM 3 (1976) 347-54.

    Pedersen, S. "Zum Problem der vaticinia ex eventu (Eine analyse von Mt.21,33-46 par.; 22,1-10 par.)." ST 19 (1965) 167-88.

    Reicke, B. "Synoptic Prophecies on the Destruction of Jerusalem." In Studies in the New Testament and Early Christian Literature. FS A.P. Wikgren. NovTSup 33. Leiden : Brill, 1972. 121-34.

    Taylor, V. "A Cry from the Siege : A Suggestion regarding a Non-Marcan Oracle Embedded in Lk.xxi 20-36." JTS 26 (1924-25) 136-44.

    Wainwright, A.W. "Luke and the Restoration of the Kingdom to Israel." ExpTim 89 (1977-78) 76-79.

    It's alright for you with access to a university library but what makes you think that onacruse or the majority of the forum have access to these journals ? And from just which of these do you adduce evidence for the Gentile Times ? You know quite well that sort of reference would not be accepted in work you might submit to the university or academic journals. If you want to share your knowledge you need to quote in support of your viewpoint and give the journal, author, year and page of your source.

    Consider your other statement : "Respecting Daniel, you will find the section on the tree dream in the Anchor Bible Commentary most enlightening."

    To say it is "most enlightening" is meaningless. Would something so vague be acceptable in academia ? This is what the Anchor Bible Commentary on the book of Daniel has to say (page 176) :

    Although the motif of a "world tree" was rather widespread in antiquity, there is no need to look outside the Bible for the sources of this story's portrayal of the mighty king under the figure of a gigantic tree. First in consideration comes the allegory of the cypress of Lebanon in Ezekiel 31, where it is applied to the king of Egypt. As in Daniel 4, the great tree of Ezekiel 31 "was beautiful of branch, lofty of stature, and lifted its crest amid the clouds" (vs 3); "in its boughs all the birds of the air nested, and under its branches all the beasts of the field gave birth" (vs. 6); but "because it became proud of heart at its height," God let it be cut down and its foliage and branches brought low (vss. 11f). Just as the paradise theme is connected with the tree of Ezekiel 31 - "the cedars of the garden of God were not its equal..., no tree in the garden of God matched its beauty" (vs.8); and it was "the envy of all Eden's trees in the garden of God" (vs.9), so that all of Eden's trees, from which it had been stealing the life-giving water, rejoiced at its downfall (vs.16) - so also in Daniel 4, the tree with its abundant fruit which provided nourishment for all (vs.9) is similar to Eden's tree of life; Nebuchadnezzar in his pride would take the place of God, who alone sustains man's life.

    The allegory of the transplanted shoot from the chopped-down tree in Ezek.22:22ff., which symbolizes the restoration of the Davidic dynasty, has also influenced Daniel 4; "it shall put forth branches and bear fruit, and become a majestic cedar; birds of every kind shall dwell beneath it, and every winged thing in the shade of its boughs." Here also the moral is similar; compare Ezekiel 22:24, "All the trees of the field shall know that I, Yahweh, bring low the high tree, lift high the lowly tree, wither up the green tree, and make the withered tree bloom," with Dan.4:14, "...The Most High has dominion over man's kingdom; he gives it to whom he wishes, and he sets over it the lowliest of men."

    For the stump of the tree left in the ground (4:12), compare the "stump" of David's dynastic tree in Isa.11:1, and the "oak whose stump remains when its leaves have fallen" in Isa.4:13. There is no reason to think that the ancients actually clamped a metal band around the stump of a chopped-down tree, as if to keep it from splitting; here the image passes to the reality : the king is to be bound with metal fetters.

    No doubt that would be enlightening if we all had access to the commentary. But how much more enlightening it would have been if you had simply printed out the information for all to share and review. And don't you think that your comment implies that there is something in the commentary about the 7 times of Daniel being a typological period of 2520 years ? But there isn't, is there ?

    So I rather think you enjoy giving the impression you are scholarly by citing academic journals but, unless you are prepared to share what is in those journals for all to see, it only serves to impress the impressionable.

    AlanF :

    Don't imagine for a moment that I have joined the forces of darkness. It's just that some folks are a poor advertisement for the forces of light. I will be replying to your own comments in the next day or two.

    Earnest MA (Cantab) ... of the intellectual one-upmanship class

    Edited by - Earnest on 15 January 2003 20:57:5

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    Hi Earnest,

    I think your comments to "scholar" are on the money. Although he claims to have academic credentials, he is no more a scholar than he is a rocket scientist. Why? Because, as you point out, he fails to act as a true scholar would. He has no choice, if he wants to remain true to the falsehoods taught by the Watchtower Society.

    'Impressing the impressionable'. I like that. That's a good summary of Watchtower teaching techniques in a number of areas like "Bible chronology".

    As for presenting a convincing argument, your comments ought to shame "scholar" into repenting of his ways. But I fear he will not.

    As for me, my feelings are well represented by what the magazine Technology Review, (February/March 1992, p. 5; this is a magazine for alumni who contribute to MIT) published in an article titled "Looking for a Few Hungry Samurai". It gave general advice to moonlighting authors who might want to write articles for the magazine, and offered a few suggestions on how an author could make his writing a success. Here is my favorite:

    Dont preach to the converted. Readers want to know your opinions, even those with strong political implications. But its important to assume that readers are intelligent skeptics who dont already agree with you -- otherwise, why bother to write? -- yet who are willing to be convinced. The key is to present enough material, including a fair rendering of opposing viewpoints, so that readers can decide for themselves. "The best way I know of persuading you of anything," says MIT physicist Philip Morrison, "is not to plead with you to trust me, not to invoke authority in general, not even to call upon some expert, but to show you just what it is that persuaded me."

    In these discussions on JW chronology, I think you can see who is following Morrison's advice.

    : Don't imagine for a moment that I have joined the forces of darkness.

    Never may that happen!

    : It's just that some folks are a poor advertisement for the forces of light.

    Seriously, this is all too true of the Society itself, as is evident when you carefully analyze its teachings with respect to what it fails to tell you, and as is evident by its "fruit" such as this self-proclaimed "scholar".

    : I will be replying to your own comments in the next day or two.

    I look forward to it.

    AlanF

    Edited by - AlanF on 15 January 2003 21:57:29

  • onacruse
    onacruse

    Earnest, thank you. I disengaged myself from this conversation because I felt that scholar's responses indicated a lack of sincere Biblical inquiry. You reflected my feelings very well. And, you are correct, I for one do NOT have ready access to the sources that scholar referenced. Thank you for posting the quotes.

    Your interaction with Alan is a refreshing example of mutual respect and discovery.

    Craig

    Edited by - onacruse on 15 January 2003 22:19:18

  • aChristian
    aChristian

    I've got a question for Scholar. Since you imply that the Watchtower Society has established its 607 B.C.E. date by following the scriptures more closely than those of us who accept the testimony of secular historians concerning the date of Jerusalem's destruction, why is it that the Society rejects the clearly stated words found in Dan. 1:1, 2-6 and 2:1 and those who believe that Jerusalem was destroyed in 587/6 B.C.E. accept them?

    The Watchtower Society maintains that Daniel was not really taken prisoner "in the third year of Jehoiakim" as Daniel himself wrote ( Dan. 1:1, 2-6 ), but in Jehoiakim's third year, "as tributary king to Babylon." ( Insight, Vol. 1, pg. 576. ) To support their teaching that Daniel was not really taken prisoner "in the third year of Jehoiakim," as Daniel said that he was, the Society says that Daniel also did not really mean what he wrote when he said that he was in Babylon, "in the second year of Nebuchadnezzar." ( Dan. 2:1 ) They say what Daniel really meant was that he was in Babylon in the 21st year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign, as it is reckoned everywhere else in scripture. They say that in this instance, and in this instance only, Daniel was "dating from Jerusalem's overthrow in 607 BCE." ( Insight, Vol. 1, pg. 576 )

    So, according to the Watchtower Society, "the third year of Jehoiakim" does not really mean "the third year of Jehoiakim," and "the second year of Nebuchadnezzar" does not really mean "the second year of Nebuchadnezzar." These seem like strange teachings for an organization which claims to have set their 607 B.C.E. date by following the scriptures more closely than the rest of us.

    By the way, for those who don't know the answer to the question I have here asked Scholar, I'll tell you why the Watchtower Society rejects and manipulates the scriptures in this way. If the Society admits that Daniel and others were really taken as captives from Jerusalem to Babylon "in the third year of Jehoiakim," as Daniel said that they were, and if it admits that Daniel really was in Babylon "in the second year of Nebuchadnezzar," as Daniel said that he was, then its teaching that the "seventy years" of "devastations of Jerusalem" (Dan. 9:2) did not begin to run until the time of Judah's total desolation completely falls apart. For the facts of history, and Daniel's own written words in these two separate passages of his book, clearly tell us that Babylon began subjecting all of its neighboring nations, including Judah, to a long series of "devastations" and "desolations" more than twenty years before it destroyed Jerusalem and totally desolated the land of Judah.

    Once this fact becomes clear, a fact which the Society has sought to obscure by telling us that Daniel did not really mean what he wrote in these two passages of his book, it becomes clear that the "seventy years" did not begin at the time of Judah's total desolation and end when the Jews once again inhabited their land. The truth of when the "seventy years" began and when they ended then also becomes clear. The fact that Daniel and many others were taken as captives from Jerusalem to Babylon nearly twenty years before Jerusalem's destruction helps us to clearly see that the "seventy years" were a period of time during which God permitted Babylon to subjugate, devastate and desolate its neighboring nations, a period of time which began when Babylon first began to do so and ended when it was overthrown by Cyrus the Great. History shows that this seventy year period of time ran from 609 B.C.E. to 539 B.C.E.

    And, once we understand with the help of these two passages from Daniel when the "seventy years" actually ran, we will no longer accept the Society's contention that the Bible's "seventy years" prophecies can be used to date the destruction of Jerusalem to 607 B.C.E. And if the Society cannot use the Bible's "seventy years" prophecies to convince people that Jerusalem fell in 607 B.C.E. it cannot use that date to "prove" to them that Christ returned invisibly in 1914. And if the Society cannot "prove" that Christ returned in 1914 it has no basis for saying that he then appointed them over all his belongings, or that he ever appointed them over anything at all.

    So again I'll ask Scholar, if the Watchtower Society follows the scriptures more closely than those of us who accept 587/6 B.C.E. as the date of Jerusalem's destruction, why is it that we can accept the clearly stated words found in Dan. 1:1, 2-6 and 2:1 and the Society cannot?

    Edited by - aChristian on 16 January 2003 2:2:46

    Edited by - aChristian on 16 January 2003 2:12:13

  • scholar
    scholar

    Earnest

    I wish to reply to your comments. The simple reason why I do not elaborate in detail all that could be said is simply that I am rather new to computer use and do not enjoy at this stage the abilities in making impressive posts as others do. In time with practice I will no doubt improve. Also I have found that when I have given reference to the scholarly literature in the past I have found that these have been ignored. You are the only person thus far that at least has taken the trouble to look at those references. You must remember that when I make a posting or reply to a posting I am not going to submit a scholarly thesis on that subject for there are propere avenues for this to occur and the internet is not one of these. Other posters like Alan F have the luxury to post extensive and elaborate replies this however does not mean good scholarship. If such replies satisfies you then that is fine but you must remember that such replies are only a summary of what Jonsson has published.

    Regarding the terminal date for the seventy years it is true that certain texts as you have described can be used to refer to the fall of Babylon if uou subscribe to the servitude theory. However if you subscibe to the desolation theory then those texts can equally ell refer to 537. You have listed the Bibliography in the commentary in Luke then you must read and investigate the times mentioned in Luke 21:24 wherein theologians give a eschatological interpretation for that expression. The Gentile Times is clearly a eschatological application on the 'times' in Luke 21;24 OR AT THE VERY LEAST IS CONSISTENT WITH CONTEMPORARY THEOLOGICAL OPINION..

    Your question about 1914 is rather hypothethical do not you agree? I would say that the very fact that the First World War began in 1914 and which concluded the already calcuable date of the end of the Gentile Times could be considered rather highly providential. If we are serious about such scholarly matters then one has to be prepared to access theological libraries and consult the journals and not just reply on one piece of research into chronology namely Jonssons. You have to do the hard yards as Ihave done over many years. Ihave worked very hard to enjoy my academic success at my age and continue to pursue mu studies. I did not get my degrees in a packet of cornflakes or bought them from an American University. Please be assure that the more one studies chronology the more difficult it becomes. For this reason alone, the Society's presentatation of the matter is both consistent with the secular evidence and the biblical record. Attempts made otherwise have to scrap the seventy years in its entirety in order to fit a chronology with all of the so called secular evidence.

    Ask yourself in respect to the end of the seventy years. What event would have been more imporatnt to the exile awaiting the prophesied end of the seventy years, the Fall of Babylon or the actual release by Cyrus permitting the exile to return to his home and worship Jehovah again ate a restored temple.

    scholar BA MA Studies in Religion

  • onacruse
    onacruse

    AlanF quoted:

    But its important to assume that readers are intelligent skeptics who dont already agree with you -- otherwise, why bother to write? -- yet who are willing to be convinced.

    scholar: I ask that you please consider me to be an open-minded skeptic. I once again invite you to prove, using the Bible as your primary source, that the "seven times" of Daniel 4 necessarily have anything to do with the "Gentile times" of Luke 21. I am willing, even anxious, to be convinced.

    The Gentile Times is clearly a eschatological application on the 'times' in Luke 21;24 OR AT THE VERY LEAST IS CONSISTENT WITH CONTEMPORARY THEOLOGICAL OPINION..

    Barclay, Barnes, Brown, Gill, Jamieson, Fausset, Henry, Scofield, Walvoord, The Interpreter's Bible, Abingdon Bible Commentary, New International Version Study Bible, The Ryrie Study Bible, The Oxford Annotated RSV, The New Jerusalem Bible neither support, or even allude to, this supposed 2520 years interpretation.

    My position: The 2520 years theory is total speculation, and that's where the 1914 timeline goes awry.

    Craig

    Edited by - onacruse on 16 January 2003 4:49:12

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    scholar:

    Thank you for your full reply to my comments.

    If we are serious about such scholarly matters then one has to be prepared to access theological libraries and consult the journals and not just reply on one piece of research into chronology, namely Jonssons. You have to do the hard yards as I have done over many years. I have worked very hard to enjoy my academic success at my age and continue to pursue my studies. I did not get my degrees in a packet of cornflakes or bought them from an American University. Please be assured that the more one studies chronology the more difficult it becomes.

    I understand that it is helpful to have an academic background to ancient near eastern chronology and do not doubt that you have worked hard on this over a number of years. However, the nature of discussion on this board requires the evidence to be put up front and if it is sufficiently compelling then it may encourage some to study the subject further. But when you reply by recommending a reading list it does not take into consideration those who cannot access the material and gives the impression of intellectual arrogance. It also ignores the dynamics of these discussions. You can convey a lot of information to a lot of people if they are interested in an ongoing discussion. But you kill the momentum of any such discussion by requiring off-line reading before you are willing to discuss your views. Surely that defeats the purpose of posting in the first place.

    You have listed the Bibliography in the commentary in Luke then you must read and investigate the times mentioned in Luke 21:24 wherein theologians give a eschatological interpretation for that expression.

    When I have opportunity I will do so. If you can be more specific about which of the publications listed contains the information you refer to that will enable me to focus my investigation.

    aChristian :

    The Watchtower Society maintains that Daniel was not really taken prisoner "in the third year of Jehoiakim" as Daniel himself wrote ( Dan. 1:1, 2-6 ), but in Jehoiakim's third year, "as tributary king to Babylon." ( Insight, Vol. 1, pg. 576. )

    Daniel 1:1,2 "In the third year of the kingship of Jehoiakim the king of Judah, Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and proceeded to lay siege to it. In time Jehovah gave into his hand Jehoiakim the king of Judah and a part of the utensils of the house of the true God..."

    2 Kings 23:36 - 24:13 "Twenty-five years old was Jehoiakim when he began to reign, and for eleven years he reigned in Jerusalem....In his days Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon came up, and so Jehoiakim became his servant for three years. However, he turned back and rebelled against him...Finally Jehoiakim lay down with his forefathers, and Jehoiachin his son began to reign in place of him...Eighteen years old was Jehoiachin when he began to reign, and for three months he reigned in Jerusalem...During that time the servants of Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon came up to Jerusalem, so that the city came under siege...At length Jehoiachin the king of Judah went out to the king of Babylon...and the king of Babylon got to take [Jehoiachin] in the eighth year of [the king of Babylon] being king. Then [the king of Babylon] brought out from there all the treasures of the house of Jehovah and the treasures of the king's house, and went on to cut to pieces all the gold utensils that Solomon the king of Israel had made in the temple of Jehovah..."

    From a comparison of these two accounts would you say Daniel was referring to the third year of Jehoiakim's reign or the third year as servant [tributary king] to Nebuchadnezzar ? Now let's think about this a bit further. Nebuchadnezzar brought the utensils [and all the princes and all the valiant, mighty men] to Babylon in the eighth year of his being king. So would you say it is manipulating the scriptures to suggest that when it later refers to him having a dream in his second year, it is probably dating from some event other than the beginning of his reign ? The alternative explanation is that Nebuchadnezzar laid siege to Jehoiakim on a previous occasion and took utensils of the house of God and brought sons of the royal offspring and of the nobles to Babylon...but without a breath of it in the account of Jehoiakim's kingship!?...strange teachings indeed.

    Furthermore, just prior to mentioning "the second year of the kingship of Nebuchadnezzar" (2:1), Daniel refers to "the first year of Cyrus the king" (1:21). Do you think he was referring to the year Cyrus became king or is he dating it from Babylon's overthrow ?

    I have to say that far from obscuring anything it seems to me that the WTS understanding of what these particular time periods refer to is the most obvious meaning of a straight-forward reading of the scriptures.

    Earnest

    Edited by - Earnest on 16 January 2003 23:37:19

  • aChristian
    aChristian

    Earnest,

    You asked: From a comparison of these two accounts would you say Daniel was referring to the third year of Jehoiakim's reign or the third year as servant [tributary king] to Nebuchadnezzar ?

    We have absolutely no reason to believe that Daniel was not referring to "the third year of Jehoiakim," as counted from the start of Jehoiakim's reign as king of Judah. In fact we have every reason to believe that he was doing exactly that. Historians tell us that Nebuchadnezzar became king of Babylon in September of 605 B.C.E. They also tell us that Babylonian officials employed the "accession year" system of reckoning, in which a king's first partial calendar year of rule was referred to as his "accession year" and his first full calendar year of rule was counted as his first year. The Babylonian calendar began in the spring. Thus Nebuchadnezzar's accession year ran from the spring of 605 B.C.E. to the spring of 604 B.C.E. Daniel, as an official of the Babylonian royal court, most likely also used the accession year system of reckoning when counting the years of Jehoiakim's reign. Though he may well have done so following the Jewish secular calendar which began in the fall. If these things were so, then "the third year of Jehoiakim" would have run from the fall of 606 B.C.E. to the fall of 605 B.C.E. In other words, Nebuchadnezzar became king of Babylon, "in the third year of Jehoiakim."

    Why is this relevant? Because according to the historical account of Berosus preserved for us by Josephus in "Against Apion" (1.19.136-39), Nebuchadnezzar was away from Babylon in the middle of a military campaign in which he took "Jews" as captives when he received the news that his father had died. We are told he then proceeded in haste back to Babylon and had his friends bring his Jewish captives along behind him. Since we know Nebuchadnezzar took Jews as captives in his accession year, and since we know his accession year corresponded to "the third year of Jehoiakim," we have every reason to believe that Daniel was among those captives, since Daniel tells us that he was taken from Jerusalem to Babylon "in the third year of Jehoiakim."

    You wrote: Furthermore, just prior to mentioning "the second year of the kingship of Nebuchadnezzar" (2:1), Daniel refers to "the first year of Cyrus the king" (1:21). Do you think he was referring to the year Cyrus became king or is he dating it from Babylon's overthrow ?

    Daniel was counting from the time Cyrus became king of Babylon. Just as he counted Nebuchadnezzar's reign from the time he became king of Babylon. And just as he counted Jehoiakim's reign from the time he became king of Judah.

    The problems Watchtower chronology creates with Daniel's age also provides evidence that Daniel's words, "the third year of Jehoiakim," and "the second year of Nebuchadnezzar," meant just what they appear to have meant. The Watchtower Society tells us Daniel was "taken to Babylon, likely as a teenage prince," in the year "618 B.C.E." ( See insight, Vol. 1, pg. 576 ) Let's say he was 15. That means when Daniel was writing his book "in the third year of Cyrus" (Dan.10:1) which was 536 BCE ( See Insight, Vol. 1, pg. 568 ), Daniel was 97 years old. Does this seem likely? Very few people at that time, or even today, lived to such an advanced age. But there is more to the story of Daniel's extreme old age created by the Society's 607 BCE date for Jerusalem's destruction. And it gets worse for the Watchtower Society.

    If the Society accepted the scriptures as written, that "the third year of Jehoiakim" means "the third year of Jehoiakim," then according to the Watchtower Society Daniel would have been writing his book when he was about 105 years old. For the Society dates the actual "third year of Jehoiakim" to "626 B.C.E." ( See Insight, Vol. 1, pg. 1268. ) No wonder they say that "the third year of Jehoiakim," when referred to by Daniel, does not really mean "the third year of Jehoiakim." However, if Jerusalem fell in 587/6 B.C.E., as all history books tell us, then "the third year of Jehoiakim" fell in 605 B.C.E. And if it did, as real Bible historians tell us it did, Daniel would have only been about 84 years old when he was writing his book "in the third year of Cyrus." Did Daniel write his book at about age 84, as a 587/6 B.C.E. date for Jerusalem's destruction would indicate? Or did he do so at about age 97, as the Watchtower's 607 B.C.E. date along with their "Daniel didn't really mean what he wrote," explanation would indicate? Or did he do so at about age 105, as the Watchtower's 607 B.C.E. taken together with the clear meaning of what Daniel wrote would indicate? Which seems more credible? By the way, the Watchtower's 607 B.C.E. date creates more "age problems" of this same sort. Maybe we can discuss them later.

    Edited by - aChristian on 17 January 2003 2:12:39

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