Do JWs believe Jesus is an angel?

by slimboyfat 152 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @vienne

    The passage in Philippians 2:6-11 indeed describes Jesus' pre-incarnate state, his incarnation, and subsequent exaltation. However, the interpretation that Jesus was merely in "the form of God" as a spirit, rather than being fully divine, misses the crucial context of Paul's argument. When Paul writes that Jesus existed "in the form of God" (μορφῇ θεοῦ), he is not merely stating that Jesus had "a similar" nature to God, like the angels do. Instead, the phrase indicates that Jesus possessed the very nature and essence of God, sharing fully in the divine identity. The use of "form" (μορφῇ) here does not imply a superficial or incomplete likeness but rather the true and complete nature of God. This understanding is consistent with the broader New Testament witness to Jesus' divinity.

    If the statement that Christ existed "in the form of God" only meant that he was an angel or existed as a spirit, so why is it that nowhere in the Holy Scriptures is the statement about angels that they exist "in the form of God"? This is simply an arbitrary statement, proof by assertion. Once Christians knew that Christ was incarnate, then it stands to reason that he did not exist in bodily form before that, so this interpretation would be a mere tautology.

    The Bible does not describe angels or other spiritual beings as existing "in the form of God" at all. This phrase is unique and significant because it implies a level of divinity and equality with God that is not attributed to any other being. The use of "form of God" in Philippians 2:6 indicates that Jesus shared in the divine nature, which is why the passage goes on to discuss how He did not consider equality with God something to be grasped or exploited. This clearly distinguishes Jesus from any created being, including angels, and emphasizes His unique divine status.

    Thus the term "morphe" in the context of Philippians 2:6 does not merely denote an external appearance or a generic spiritual nature. Instead, "morphe" refers to the essential attributes and nature of something. In saying that Christ existed in the "form of God," Paul is affirming that Christ possesses the very nature and essence of God. This is not merely about being a spirit but about sharing in the full divine nature.

    Your argument suggests that Paul is contrasting Jesus with Roman emperors who "grasped" at divinity that did not belong to them. However, the assertion that this juxtaposition was Paul's goal, or that he had this in mind, is not supported by anything from the context, it is an arbitrary statement. While this might be an interesting historical parallel, it does not negate the point Paul is making about Christ's divine nature. The contrast is not between Jesus and mere humans but between Jesus' divine prerogatives and His willingness to empty Himself for humanity's sake. Jesus did not need to grasp at divinity because He already possessed it; instead, He chose to humble Himself.

    You suggest that the context of Philippians 2:6 points to a non-Trinitarian view, but this interpretation fails to take into account the doctrine of the Trinity as understood by the early Church. The Trinity is not modalism (which suggests that God simply takes on different modes or forms) but rather the belief in one God in three distinct persons: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. The passage in Philippians highlights the humility of Christ in not clinging to his equality with God but rather emptying himself to take on human nature. This act of humility does not diminish his divinity but rather emphasizes the mystery of the incarnation—God becoming man while remaining fully God.

    Your argument that Jesus cannot be God because "no one has seen God" (John 1:18) overlooks the doctrine of the incarnation. The New Testament clearly teaches that Jesus is the visible image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15), and through the incarnation, God made Himself known in the person of Jesus Christ. The distinction John makes in John 1:18 is between seeing God in His full, unmediated glory (which no one can do) and seeing God as He has revealed Himself in Christ. Jesus is not merely a reflection or a lesser being but the full and perfect revelation of God to humanity.

    It is indeed true that "no one has ever seen God," which refers to the fact that no one has fully seen or comprehended the Father in His fullness and glory. However, the verse continues by saying, "the only(-begotted, or unique) God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known." This is a clear reference to Jesus, the Son, who has made the Father known to humanity. The distinction between seeing God and seeing Jesus does not diminish the divinity of Christ but rather underscores the unique role of Jesus in revealing the Father to the world. While Jesus, in His incarnation, was seen by people, this does not contradict the statement that no one has seen the Father in His full divine essence. Jesus is the visible manifestation of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15), making the Father known in a way that is accessible to humanity.

    The example of Isaiah's vision in Isaiah 6 is often brought up to discuss whether people have seen God. Isaiah describes seeing the Lord seated on a throne, high and exalted. However, the New Testament, particularly in John 12:41, clarifies that Isaiah saw the glory of Christ, further affirming the pre-incarnate existence of the Son and His divinity. This supports the understanding that while no one has seen the Father directly, people have encountered the Son, who reveals the Father.

    The use of "form" (μορφή) and "image" (εἰκών) in the New Testament does not imply inferiority or a mere resemblance but rather speaks to the real and true representation of God's nature in Christ. For instance, Hebrews 1:3 states that Jesus is the "exact imprint" (χαρακτὴρ) of God's nature. This language underscores the belief that Jesus shares in the same divine essence as the Father. The Son's taking on the "form of a servant" (μορφὴν δούλου) does not negate his divinity but highlights the profound humility of the incarnation, where the eternal Son of God took on human flesh for the sake of humanity.

    Your interpretation that Christ "emptied" Himself of divine glory to take on human form is partially correct but requires clarification. The "emptying" (kenosis) does not imply that Christ ceased to be God or shed His divine nature. Instead, it means that He chose not to exercise His divine rights fully and took on human nature, experiencing the limitations and suffering of humanity while remaining fully divine.

    The suggestion that Trinitarians rely on "extended verbiage" to make their case misses the point that Trinitarian theology is deeply rooted in the biblical text and the historical understanding of the early Church. The doctrine of the Trinity developed as a way to faithfully interpret the full witness of Scripture, which consistently portrays Jesus as fully God and fully man. This is not a later "imposition" but a necessary conclusion drawn from the biblical data.

    @Duran

    The Bible, while inspired, is a complex collection of texts written over centuries, in different languages, and within various cultural contexts. To understand its message fully, we must engage in interpretation. This doesn’t mean altering the text, but rather seeking to understand what the original authors intended and how it applies today.

    Quoting verses in isolation without considering their context can lead to misunderstandings. For example, when discussing doctrines like the Trinity, we must consider the full scope of biblical revelation, including the Old and New Testaments, to see how God has progressively revealed His nature.

    Simply using verses without context to support a preconceived idea is called Proof-texting, and it can lead to incorrect conclusions. It's important to consider the genre, audience, and purpose of each book of the Bible when interpreting a verse.

    Trinitarians do not ignore or twist Scripture. Instead, they seek to interpret the Bible faithfully, considering the whole counsel of Scripture, both the Old and New Testaments. The doctrine of the Trinity is not based on cherry-picking verses but on a holistic understanding of the biblical narrative, where God is revealed as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Each Person of the Trinity is seen interacting in the work of creation, redemption, and sanctification.

    Reason and faith are not opposed to each other. The doctrine of the Trinity is indeed a complex theological concept, but it is rooted in the biblical texts. Reason helps believers to articulate and understand the mystery of God's nature as revealed in Scripture. It’s important to recognize that the limitations of human reason don’t invalidate the truth of Scripture, which often reveals things beyond human comprehension.

    The accusation that Trinitarians are "idiots in their reasoning" misunderstands how deeply Trinitarians engage with the Scriptures. The doctrine of the Trinity in its crystallized form was developed over centuries of careful study, debate, and reflection on the entire biblical text, not just isolated verses. Theologians and scholars have long wrestled with how best to articulate the nature of God as revealed in the Bible. The Trinity is the conclusion that they reached, and it reflects a profound respect for all the Scriptures.

    Proverbs 26:4 says, "Do not answer a fool according to his folly, or you yourself will be just like him." This verse advises against stooping to the level of unwise arguments, but it doesn't mean we should avoid discussing important issues or challenging misconceptions. The goal should always be to engage with respect, clarity, and a desire for mutual understanding.

    Dismissing Trinitarians as "lacking reason" overlooks the genuine and thoughtful engagement that many believers have with the Scriptures. The doctrine of the Trinity is a result of deep reflection on the Bible’s revelation of God, and it has been affirmed by countless believers over the centuries as a faithful expression of biblical truth. Rather than viewing Trinitarians as "idiots," it might be more productive to engage in a respectful dialogue about why they believe what they do and to explore the Scriptures together with an open mind and heart.

  • vienne
    vienne

    your reply ignores both the content and context of the verse. You are incapable of focusing on the exact content of the verses. I don't recall calling anyone an idiot.

  • vienne
    vienne

    It's not "only begotten god" but "only begotten son." To be begotten implies and origin which is implied in Micah 5:2

    “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah,
    though you are small among the clans of Judah,
    out of you will come for me
    one who will be ruler over Israel,
    whose origins are from of old,
    from ancient times.”

  • Duran
    Duran
    I don't recall calling anyone an idiot.

    You didn't, I did. He was talking about me.

    Proverbs 26:4 says, "Do not answer a fool according to his folly, or you yourself will be just like him." This verse advises against stooping to the level of unwise arguments, but it doesn't mean we should avoid discussing important issues or challenging misconceptions. The goal should always be to engage with respect, clarity, and a desire for mutual understanding.

    A trinitarian's 'folly' is in their claiming that Jehovah and Jesus are the same person/being, despite the many Scriptures that show that they are two separate persons/beings. To speak to a trinitarian is like speaking to a flat-Earther.

    Regardless, it does not matter now about all the foolish understandings that currently exist among ALL. The time to understand correctly is still ahead. Dan 11:33

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    1 Sam 17:12 Now David [was] the son of that Ephrathite of Bethlehem judah, whose name [was] Jesse...

    Micah 5 was repeating a belief that someone of the small 'clan of Bethlehem Ephrathah' would rule Israel. When that was written that clan's origins were already from the mythic past, "whose origins are from of old, from ancient times."


  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat

    There are scholars who argue that the idea of a pre-existent angelic Messiah was already present in texts such as Micah 5 and Isaiah 9 and that Christians picked up on an idea that the Jews had already explored. See William Horbury’s Jewish Messianism and the Cult of Christ (1998):


  • GLTirebiter
    GLTirebiter
    Jehovah’s Witnesses teach that Jesus is Michael the archangel, their leader, eldest and most powerful

    That shows misunderstanding of the Archangels. They are not the highest rank of angels, but rather the second lowest. What sort of angels surround the mercy seat of the Ark of the Covenant? They are not archangels (Exodus 37).

    Hierarchy of angels (Wikipedia)

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @vienne

    "It's not "only begotten god" but "only begotten son." "

    In the critical text John 1:18 it's "monogenes theos", also in the Westcott-Hort, the base text on the NWT. The term "only begotten" (Greek: monogenes) is indeed applied to Jesus, and it can mean "unique" or "one of a kind." In John 1:18, the earliest manuscripts refer to Jesus as the "only begotten God" (monogenes theos), while others refer to Him as the "only begotten Son" (monogenes huios). The former emphasizes Jesus' unique divinity, while the latter underscores His unique sonship. Both expressions affirm that Jesus shares a unique relationship with the Father, distinct from all other beings, whether human or angelic.

    "To be begotten implies and origin..."

    Who said He is unbegotten? That's why you should read about what does Trinitarian theology actually teach:

    "And [we believe] in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all ages (æons), Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made..." (Nicene Creed)
    "The Father is made of none; neither created, nor begotten. The Son is of the Father alone; not made, nor created; but begotten. The Holy Ghost is of the Father and of the Son; neither made, nor created, nor begotten; but proceeding." (Athanasian Creed)
    "For the fact that the Son is of the Father is eternal and without beginning; and that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son is eternal and without beginning.” Whatever the Father is or has, He does not have from another, but from Himself; and He is the principle without principle. Whatever the Son is or has, He has from the Father, and is the principle from a principle..." (Council of Florence)

    You reference Micah 5:2, interpreting "begotten" as implying a beginning or origin. However, a closer examination of Micah 5:2 reveals that the Messiah's origins are described as "from of old, from ancient times." The Hebrew word used here, olam, often refers to eternity or a time beyond human comprehension. This indicates that the Messiah's existence stretches back into eternity, not simply to a distant point in time. This suggests that the Messiah is eternal, aligning with the Christian understanding of Jesus as eternally existent with God the Father.

    The term "begotten" does not necessarily imply that the Son had a beginning (in time). In the context of Trinitarian theology, "begotten" is understood as a relational term that describes the unique and eternal relationship between the Father and the Son. It indicates that the Son is of the same essence as the Father, not a created being. This is why the Nicene Creed, formulated in AD 325, explicitly states that Jesus is "begotten, not made, consubstantial with the Father." This creed was developed precisely to counter the Arian heresy, which argued that the Son was a created being.

    @Duran

    "A trinitarian's 'folly' is in their claiming that Jehovah and Jesus are the same person/being, despite the many Scriptures that show that they are two separate persons/beings."

    That's why you should first read up on what you want to attack, because it's a simple straw man. But of course you're not willing to do that, because "that's just philosophy" and blah blah blah...

    "And the Catholic faith is this: that we worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in Unity; neither confounding the Persons, nor dividing the Essence. For there is one Person of the Father; another of the Son; and another of the Holy Ghost."
    "...the Father is not Son or Holy Spirit, that Son is not Father or Holy Spirit; that Holy Spirit is not Father or Son; but Father alone is Father, Son alone is Son, Holy Spirit alone is Holy Spirit...." (Council of Florence)

    Your argument seems to be rooted in a misunderstanding of the doctrine of the Trinity. The Trinity is not modalism (the belief that God merely manifests in different forms) but the belief in one God in three distinct persons: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. These three persons share one divine essence but are distinct in their relationships and roles within the Godhead. The New Testament reveals this complex relationship through passages that affirm both the unity of God (monotheism) and the distinct personhood of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

    You also work with 'a priori' preconceptions: you logically start from the assumption that God/YHWH only denotes the person of the Father, so if the singular speaks in the first person, as a person separate from him, to Jesus, this already proves that Jesus cannot be God. However, such usage is nothing more than WTS jargon.

    When the WTS thinks of God, Jehovah, of course, it automatically thinks of the Father. It is true that the name of the God of Israel is Yahweh or Jehovah. It is also true that Jesus called the Father God and God his Father. But of this, the formula Jehovah / God = the Father is only logical for the Watchtower Society. The divine name Yahweh or Jehovah does not denote only one person, but the Godhead itself (theotes, Col 2:9), in whom three persons can be identified. The name of the second person is "the Son" (ho húios), his human name is "Jesus", and his mission is "Christ." The third person does have a name, since there is only one "Holy Spirit" in the Bible, so it is often simply "the Spirit" (to pneuma). Christians worship the same God with the same name (Jehovah / Yahweh) as Jehovah's Witnesses, they only claim that Jehovah God is more than Father: Son and Holy Spirit as well.

    Talking about "Jesus and Jehovah" is a Watchtowerite, JW theological jargon, and of course can only be interpreted in this context.

    In order to emphasize antitrinitarian teachings, the divine name YHWH is limited to God the Father only. This is why, for example, if a Christian says "Jesus is Jehovah", then the JW brain understands that "Jesus is the Father", which is obviously ridiculous not only for JWs, but for theologically correct Christianity. With the use of words such as "Jehovah and Jesus" also force their Arian theology, so that the antitrinitarian dogma is embedded in the JW even at the linguistic level. Cf. Newspeak.

    But of course, if we expand the wording, it becomes understandable. We do not say, for example, that Jesus is "equal to Jehovah", but that the divine name YHWH is not the name of just one person, namely the Father, but rather the deity itself, in which three persons can be identified.

    @slimboyfat

    The JW interpretation of Micah 5:2 suggests that the "origins" of the Messiah from "ancient times" imply a beginning or creation. However, this is a misunderstanding of the Hebrew text and the broader theological context. The verse speaks of the Messiah’s "goings forth" being from "of old, from everlasting" (Hebrew: miyemey olam). The phrase "from of old, from everlasting" does not imply that the Messiah had a beginning in time. Instead, it emphasizes the Messiah’s eternal nature, rooted in the divine. The term "goings forth" (motsa'otav) here is better understood as "origins" in the sense of eternal existence rather than a temporal beginning. The text highlights the eternal existence of the Messiah, not His creation. This understanding aligns with other scriptural affirmations of Christ's eternal nature. For instance, John 1:1-3 clearly states that "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." The Word (Logos), identified as Christ, was not created; rather, He existed eternally with God and was the agent through whom all things were made.

    Jehovah’s Witnesses often interpret the "begotten" passages to mean that Christ had a beginning in time, thus making Him a created being. However, this interpretation overlooks the theological nuance of "begotten" as used in Scripture. The concept that Jesus Christ could be a created being contradicts the New Testament’s consistent testimony of His divine, eternal nature. Christ is described as preexistent before all time (John 1:1-3) and as eternally begotten of the Father (Hebrews 1:5). To imply that Jesus had a beginning by an ex nihilo creative act in time introduces a theological inconsistency.

    The phrase "begotten, not made" from the Nicene Creed captures a crucial theological distinction regarding Christ's nature. To "beget" means to generate something of the same essence. When we say Christ is "begotten," it means He is of the same divine essence as the Father, not a created being. "Begotten" signifies a unique relationship within the Godhead, where the Son is generated by the Father eternally, without implying a beginning in time.

  • Duran
    Duran
    When the WTS thinks of God, Jehovah, of course, it automatically thinks of the Father.

    This has nothing to do with WTS thinking, the Scriptures say what they say no matter who is reading them...

    [14 Then I saw, and look! the Lamb standing on Mount Zion, and with him 144,000 who have his name and the name of his Father written on their foreheads.]

    What is the Lamb's name?

    What is the Lamb's father's name?

    [ 17 Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’]

    What is the name of Jesus' God?

    What is the name of Jesus' brother's God?


  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @Duran

    The problem isn't with acknowledging that the Father is God—Trinitarians wholeheartedly agree with that. The issue lies in the Watchtower Society's understanding that only the Father is God, and that "God" refers exclusively to the Father. This view is a form of unitarianism that denies the full divinity of the Son and the Holy Spirit. The Trinity teaches that God is one in essence but exists in three distinct persons: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. These three persons are not to be confused with one another but are co-equal and co-eternal, sharing the same divine nature. The Watchtower's perspective that conflates "God" solely with the Father ignores the Trinitarian distinction of persons. It also leads to misunderstandings, such as thinking that when Christians say "Jesus is YHWH," they mean "Jesus is the Father," which is not the case in orthodox Christian theology.

    In Trinitarian doctrine, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit each have unique roles within the Godhead, particularly in the economy of salvation. The Father sends the Son, and the Son becomes incarnate, dies, and is resurrected for the salvation of humanity. The Son's role as "sent by the Father" does not imply inferiority but a relational distinction within the Godhead. This is why Scripture can speak of Jesus as being "sent" by the Father or as having God as His God without denying His own divinity.

    The Watchtower Society's approach often relies on the conflation of terms, where "God" is exclusively associated with the Father, and "Jesus" is merely seen as a created being, thus misunderstanding the Trinity. In contrast, the term "Jehovah" in Christian theology refers to the divine name of God that encompasses all three persons of the Godhead, not just the person of the Father.

    When the Watchtower speaks of "Jehovah and Jesus," it implicitly enforces its Arian theology, which views Jesus as a separate and lesser being (instead of just a distinct person, as the Bible teaches) from God the Father. This distinction is a linguistic and theological imposition that diverges from the traditional Christian understanding. Trinitarians would argue that "Jehovah" is not the exclusive name of the person of the Father but of God in His entirety, including the Son and the Holy Spirit.

    Contrary to the portrayal by the Watchtower Society, the doctrine of the Trinity indeed includes the distinction of persons. It has nothing to do with the claim that "He was His own Son, that He sent Himself, and approved Himself." As a human, Jesus could pray to God; that is, His human soul could glorify the divinity that is in close connection with Him yet perfectly distinct from Him in essence. There is no contradiction in this; in fact, it is a natural consequence of the doctrine of the two natures.

    According to the doctrine of the Trinity, one person (the Father) sent another (the Son), where their relationship was always real and substantial (not merely apparent), and at the same time, this occurred within the Godhead (not between the Creator and one of His creatures). It's interesting to note the reasoning of the WTS: the reader of their publications is expected to think of the Father whenever the word "God" is mentioned, but when the Bible refers to the Son as God (see John 1:1, 18; 20:28, etc.), they are immediately to think of the "relative" meaning of the word "god" as merely a "title" (?). However, the original Greek text and the Greek manuscripts prior to the 7th-8th century did not differentiate between uppercase "G" and lowercase "g" since they used only uppercase letters.

    In the New Testament, particularly in the Gospel of John, Jesus is referred to as "God" (John 1:1, 20:28) and is worshipped as God by His disciples (Matthew 28:9, John 20:28). These instances show that the early Christians recognized Jesus as sharing in the divine nature of Jehovah, even while maintaining the distinction between Jesus and the Father. The concept of "Logos" in John 1:1 underscores this divine identity, presenting Jesus as the pre-existent Word who was with God and was God.

    Revelation 14:1 - The "name of the Father" and "the name of the Lamb" are written on the foreheads of the 144,000. This verse highlights the close relationship and unity between the Father and the Son. However, it does not suggest that Jesus is a created being or distinct in essence from God. Instead, it reflects the shared divine authority and identity between the Father and the Son.

    By the way, the phrase "name of the Father" does not need to be associated with the Tetragrammaton, nor does the phrase "the name of the Lamb" need to be linked to the name "Jesus." Nowhere in the New Testament do we read that the apostles proclaimed the importance of the cultic veneration of the name Yahweh, or even presented it as a condition for salvation in the Hellenistic world. As for the phrase "hallowed be Thy name," this is a simple Hebraism. The term "name" (onoma, shem) does not refer to a mere sequence of sounds, but rather to the "person," and in this case, it is a circumlocution for the Divine. "Blessed be the name of God" simply means "Blessed be God." The meaning of "hallowed be Thy name" is: 'may Your infinite majesty and perfection be recognized everywhere' (cf. Isa 29:23; 48:11; Ezek 36:23; 39:7; cf. Luke 1:49).

    Furthermore, the word "hallow" is not in the optative mood but the imperative, and it is not man who is being asked to do something, but God. Literally translated: "let the name be made holy," i.e., by God, meaning that God should sanctify it among people so that His royal rule may finally come and His will be done on earth as it is in heaven (Matt 6:9-10). In the Lord's Prayer (Matt 6:9, Luke 11:2), this petition, "Hallowed be Thy name," means: may the strong and almighty, the good and loving heavenly Father personally and in a way perceptible to human understanding, take into His hands the restoration of this unfathomably chaotic, headless, and unrestrained world.

    Jesus did not begin His prayer with "Jehovah," so the phrase "Thy name" here does not encourage some Watchtower-style emphasizated use of "Jehovah," as the word "name" here is to be understood in the sense of "person," or "being", as attested by the New Testament.

    In the New Testament, the term "name" (onoma) signifies the person; the word "person" means someone's individual character, identity, and being. The Hebrew and Greek languages, lacking a word equivalent to the term "person," express the concept signified by the word "person" using the word "name." So when, for example, Psalm 75:1 says, "We give thanks to you, O God; Your name is near," it means: we thank You that You are personally close to us. Or in Psalm 116:4, "I called on the name of the Lord" means: I turned to the Lord, bringing my case directly before His person, appealing to Him. Or in Psalm 118:26, "Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord" (Matt 21:9, Mark 11:9, Luke 19:38, John 12:13, Matt 23:39, Luke 13:35), it means: blessed is he who comes with a commission from the Lord, as a representative of His person. In Acts 1:15, it literally says: "The company of names was about 120"; meaning: "There was a company of about 120 persons." (So here again, the name means person or human.) In Acts 3:16, the phrase "the name of Jesus has made this man strong" means: Jesus personally healed him. In Matthew 28:19, the phrase "eis to onoma" can be translated as "in the name of," "on the name of," or "into the name of", and each essentially means this: through baptism, the child is brought into direct relationship with the person of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Acts 4:11-12 states: "…this Jesus is the stone that was rejected by you, the builders, which has become the cornerstone. And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved"; this means: outside of Christ Jesus, there is no other person through whom humanity can be saved. In the Lord's Prayer (Matt 6:9, Luke 11:2), this petition, "Hallowed be Thy name," means: may the strong and almighty, the good and loving heavenly Father personally and in a way perceptible to human understanding, take into His hands the restoration of this unfathomably chaotic, headless, and unrestrained world. - This is how the word "name," which appears 228 times in the New Testament, should be understood.

    John 20:17 - When Jesus speaks of "my God and your God," He is addressing the Father from His position as the incarnate Son, fully divine yet fully human. This distinction does not deny His divinity but rather emphasizes His role in the incarnation, where He humbled Himself to take on human nature. The Son’s humanity involves a relationship with the Father in a way that reflects His mission of redemption.

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