Earnest --
I wrote to you on July 30 (back on page 11 of this thread) and said:
Mercer references some articles on vassalage that sound interesting. I may try to look them up in the next week or so.
It's been a busy week for me, but yesterday I was able to read the Jonas Greenfield article cited by Mercer. ( J. C. Greenfield, 'Some Aspects of Treaty Terminology,' in Fourth World Congress of Jewish Studies: Papers, volume 1. Jerusalem, 1967.) Greenfield discusses some of the terminology used in the vassal treaties of the Ancient Near East. He is particularly interested in the words used for "vassal", "suzerain/sovereign", and "tribute".
The Hebrew word 'ebed (servant, slave) is used to mean vassal. Greenfield discusses several Bible verses and also compares the terminology used in Ugaritic texts and Akkadian texts. (Ugarit is very closely related to Hebrew).
It is clear that Mercer was correct in saying that Daniel could have used a Hebrew word other than "malkut" if he had wanted to express the third year of the "servitude" of Jehoiakim rather than the third year of the "reign" of Jehoiakim.
Additionally, if Daniel had wanted to emphasize in Daniel 2:1 that this was not actually the second year of Nebuchadnezzar's reign (as the text plainly says), but rather it was his "second year after defeating Egypt," when he became the "Great King" of the entire ANE (which would be his literal 20 th year, according to Scholar), there are at least three other ways he could have expressed that.
Greenfield discusses three Hebrew terms: melek gadol, melek rab, and melek yareb which are applied to the "Great King".
So Daniel could have used one of those terms if he had wanted to give his readers a hint that Nebuchadnezzar was now an even greater and mightier king and Daniel was therefore counting his years in a different way. But, of course, it would have been even simpler for Daniel just to say that Nebuchadnezzar had the dream in "the second year after he defeated Egypt". Daniel was a brilliant, well-educated man who had no need to "hint" or "indicate" that he didn't really mean the literal "third year of the reign of King Jehoiakim" or the literal "second year of the reign of Nebuchadnezzar". He could have come right out and said what he meant in plain language with no ambiguity.
In any case, it is nonsense to suggest (as per Scholar) that "malkut" is translated as "kingship" in order to indicate "vassalage" in Daniel 1:1 but it is translated as "kingship" in Daniel 2:1 in order to indicate "greater sovereignty".
Scholar is not only pleading a special case (as was said earlier in this thread), he is actually pleading two special cases with two different meanings by the same author within just a few paragraphs. Scholar wants us to believe that the NWT translators' use of "kingship" in Daniel 1:1 indicates Jehoiakim's status as a vassal, but in Daniel 2:1 "kingship" is supposed to indicate Nebuchadnezzar's new position as Great King after defeating Egypt.
Marjorie