Moral absolutes

by Aztec 163 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • teejay
    teejay

    I haven't read every word of every post, but a scan of this thread shows that many (most) of the respondents missed the point of Azzy's initial post. Then again, maybe what Azzy was asking was fuzzy in her own mind. It might help if Aztec returned to define her terms. (If you have, Azzy, would you point me to where you've done so?)

    For example: murder. What is it in the context of this thread? What is Aztec asking about it? A good definition of murder is: "to kill with premeditated malice; to kill (a human being) willfully, deliberately, and unlawfully." Regardless of one's cultural/religious background, is this kind of killing ever morally correct? I don't believe so. Even warring cannibals in the heart of the Amazonian jungle hold to this as a moral absolute.

    drwtsn32 asked: Please define rape so that it retains its intended meaning yet by the same definition cannot be considered always wrong. I think he's asked a very appropriate question. He went on to say: I don't think I can do it. I don't think you can, either.

  • Big Tex
    Big Tex

    Good point teejay. I still have not heard anyone be able to define rape and/or unwanted sexual advances, either currently or historical, as moral, i.e. certain situations in which it could be considered okay. However, I do feel I need to say something about this:

    The taboo about sex with minors is also a cultural construct. In Greece and Rome for example the practice was normal and without apparent harm to the child. It was deemed recreation for both parties and an honor to the boy. It is apparently only when this practice runs counter to the cultural norms that the child perceives itself as different,unclean, a victim and abused. This then is the source of the emotional damage.

    I will not debate the semantics of whether sex with children is a cultural construct. However to say that there is no emotional damage runs counter to what we know today. Children who have sex with adults, whether "consenual" or not, are harmed and badly by the experience. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder, Multiple Personality Disorder, major depression, suicide, acting out (abusing other children), anger problems are among the many issues that these children deal with when they are adults. And this is only what we know today. There easily could be other behaviors and issues that stem from child abuse that are not fully understood in 2003. Obviously PTSD, MPD, etc. were unknown 2,000 years ago, but that does not change basic human behavior. If people feel, behave and react this way today, they would have done so similarly 2,000 years ago. I'm not talking about individuals. I am referring to the vast majority. I am certain there are individual children who want or enjoy sex with an adult, but that is not the case for most and it is not reasonable to believe that would be different 2,000 years ago.

    I am most troubled by the sentence: " It is apparently only when this practice runs counter to the cultural norms that the child perceives itself as different,unclean, a victim and abused.

    This sounds exactly like some of the stuff coming from NAMBLA (North American Man Boy Love Association). They, and others like them, believe that sex with children is not harmful to the child and it is only others' reactions to it that causes the child harm. Lady Lee recently posted something from someone of this ilk who said he would like to see a 20 year study on 12 year old boys in "loving" relationships with pedophiles.

    Again let me repeat, it is clear, from everything known about the human mind, both adult and child, that an active sexual relationship with a child causes the child innumerable problems.

    In the context of ancient Greece and Rome, let point out a couple of issues. History is inevitably written by the victors. Adult survivors of child abuse are often not accepted or taken seriously today, in what is arguably the most enlightened and advanced period in human history. By that I am referring to the multiple symptoms adult surivors deal with. I cannot help but feel that in ancient Rome a woman suffering from MPD, or a man with PTSD resulting from this "loving relationship" would not have been understood nor would the condition have been treated.

    As far as the relationship being consensual, let me point out that in those societies slavery was also commonplace and often considered "beneficial" for the slave. Does anyone want to make the argument that slavery, under the right conditions, is beneficial to the slave? When in history was slavery good?

    And what were the childrens' options at that point? If they were even allowed to refuse, what life were many of them leading? Emperor Tiberius referred to the boys he raped as "minnows". They were required to swim naked with him and play with his genitals until he selected one of them to rape. Do we know the background of the "minnows"? Do we know whether the families they came from were rich or poor? Were they living hand to mouth before they were selected? Is it reasonable to believe that most (but not all) of their backgrounds were probably poor, where everyday was a struggle just to stay alive? In this context, the choice (if they had the option) was clear: they could be sex slaves and live in wealth and splendor or face an early death from disease, starvation, etc. Good lord, prostitutes walking the streets today face that dilemma. Is anyone going to make the argument that being a teenage prostitue walking the streets is beneficial to the girl or boy?

    teejay is correct however. This thread started out questioning whether there are moral absolutes. I will not argue that in ancient Rome and Greece sex with children was always considered immoral. There were many, if not most, situations were it was indeed considered okay, at least by what we know from their records. My problem comes from when someone tries to say that such a relationship is NOT harmful. And so I've felt the need to hijack this thread to answer this statement.

    Now then, maybe the question (at least on this part of the topic) should be whether sex with children should be considered a moral absolute, as in it is always wrong. I'm not going to argue about Rome and Greece, it was part of their society and it is clear they did not care about the impact such relationships had on the children. Is that attitude morally wrong? Is that, sex with children, to be considered as always wrong, under any circumstances?

  • siegswife
    siegswife

    I'm thinking somewhat along the same lines as Francois. To me, the concept of "moral" indicates a standard, which implies some base of measurement. I don't know if the idea of "moral" can exist without absolutes.

    mor·al

    (môr
    adj.

    1) Of or concerned with the judgment of the goodness or badness of human action and character: moral scrutiny; a moral quandary.

    2) Teaching or exhibiting goodness or correctness of character and behavior: a moral lesson.

    3) Conforming to standards of what is right or just in behavior; virtuous: a moral life.

    4) Arising from conscience or the sense of right and wrong: a moral obligation.

    5) Having psychological rather than physical or tangible effects: a moral victory; moral support.

    6) Based on strong likelihood or firm conviction, rather than on the actual evidence: a moral certainty.

    n.

    1) The lesson or principle contained in or taught by a fable, a story, or an event.

    2) A concisely expressed precept or general truth; a maxim.

    morals

    Rules or habits of conduct, especially of sexual conduct, with reference to standards of right and wrong: a person of loose morals; a decline in the public morals.

    Not everyone has the same standard of morals, and some people don't seem to have any at all. Still, I'm thinking that you can't have "moral" without something to measure it by. "Absolute", if you will, regardless of what those absolutes are.

    With that in mind I have to say that yes, there are moral absolutes because without them the concept of "moral" would be nonexistant.

  • drwtsn32
    drwtsn32
    is this kind of killing ever morally correct?

    teejay, how about defining murder simply as "intentionally killing another person." The times when murder would not be wrong include (in my opinion):

    • Killing another person in self defense.
    • The assassination of a horrible dictator.
    • Aborting a fetus when the life of the mother depends upon it.

    I'm not saying that everyone would do the same thing in the above circumstances, but it's easy to see how murder cannot be an absolute. Some would simply say "those above things are not murder; murder by definition is never justifiable." But if murder is defined as I mentioned above, those things would certainly qualify as murder and would not be absolutely wrong.

    Defining the term is indeed important to see how it is not absolute.

    Regarding rape, I still cannot think of a definition that would make it not absolute, but I have an open mind. And I think Aztec has a point: nothing should be considered absolute because you'll end up finding some exception later.

    (And no, I don't consider it rape when there was consentual sex but the woman later changes her mind...)

  • Big Tex
    Big Tex
    I have an open mind

    Me too drwtsn32. I don't want to appear dogmatic. And yet I cannot help but feel there are a handful of moral absolutes. It is not politically correct to say so, but I just can't bend my mind around to see under what circumstances unwanted sexual contact and/or sex with children is okay. But then I've never been considered the brightest bulb in the batch.

  • drwtsn32
    drwtsn32

    Big Tex: I understand what you're saying.... that's why one of my replies was that perhaps morality is never absolutely black/white, but while some things are gray others are mostly black.

  • teejay
    teejay

    >>> teejay, how about defining murder simply as "intentionally killing another person."

    if murder is simply the taking of a human life, then saying murder is wrong isn't a moral absolute. But then, I don't think that's the correct definition of murder.

    same with rape. I can't think of a single scenario wherein rape is ever NOT morally reprehensible. Not talking about consenting adults acting out. I'm talking the real deal.

    >>> Aztec has a point: nothing should be considered absolute because you'll end up finding some exception later.

    An exception would nullify a matter's absoluteness. Until someone can show me, though, I think that certain thing are absolutely, universally, without exception wrong.

  • Aztec
    Aztec

    No, teejay, most of the respondants did not miss my point. I was not asserting that there are not things which are wrong but that there is nothing that is always, absolutely and in every situation wrong. And thank you, but, my thoughts are not at all fuzzy.

    ~Aztec

  • joelbear
    joelbear

    Whatever causes pain is bad, whatever causes pleasure is good.

  • teejay
    teejay

    >>> I was not asserting that there are not things which are wrong but that there is nothing that is always, absolutely and in every situation wrong.

    Then I disagree with you, Azzy. Murder (the definition that I posted) and rape (forcing someone to submit to sex acts against their will) are but two examples of actions that are always wrong. There are moral absolutes. IMO.

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