Where does [Philo] say that the 'heavenly man' is an angel? - Kenneson, 10-Nov-03 02:04 GMT
Kenneson, I think you misunderstood my earlier comment on Genesis 1:26. I said :
"As an aside, many (Philo, Jerome, Franz Delitzsch) interpret Genesis 1:26 as God's consultation with angels thereby attributing angels with the same image and likeness of God." (07-Nov-03 02:37 GMT)
I should have been more specific about that comment. Genesis 1:26 reads :
And God went on to say: "Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness..."
So the interpretation of Philo, Jerome, Delitzsch and most Jewish commentators is that when God says "Let us..." he is consulting with angels, who would thus be in the same image and likeness as God. He was not consulting with man, and so I was not suggesting that Philo (or any other commentator) viewed Adam as an angel.
If Jesus is the only begotten Son, then I fail to see how there can be other begotten sons? He would no longer be the only begotten, but God would have produced numerous other offspring. - Kenneson, 10-Nov-03 02:04 GMT
In my previous post I said "The fact that Heb. 1:6 says he was the firstbegotten shows that were other sons of God, as previously discussed in this thread." Now, if you speak of a firstbegotten son you are saying that there are other sons or there will be other sons. Otherwise, you would not speak of him as the firstbegotten. The word used (prototokos) occurs eight times in the NT (Luke 2:7; Romans 8:29; Colossians 1:15,18; Hebrews 1:6; 11:28; 12:23; Revelation 1:5) as well as the related word prototokia at Hebrews 12:16 and it always refers to the first of many (or in the case of Jacob and Esau, the first of two). I understand why you make the distinction between begetting and creation but the use of prototokos tells me that distinction does not always exist. Not only can those who are created also be begotten, but (if Proverbs 8 [LXX] does refer to the pre-existent Christ) then those who are begotten can also be created.
Besides, if only one Son is directly from God, from whom are the other sons? - Kenneson, 10-Nov-03 02:04 GMT
You have previously maintained that all things, including the sons of God, were created through him and for him.
On Moses. No, he is not God like Jehovah. Jesus is superior to Moses. See Heb. 3. - Kenneson, 10-Nov-03 02:04 GMT
Jehovah said he had made Moses God to Pharaoh (Exodus 7:1) just prior to the warnings given to Pharaoh and the onset of the plagues. Clearly, Moses was speaking as God's representative and Pharaoh recognised this as time and again he says "Entreat Jehovah..." (Exodus 8:8; 9:28; 10:17).
If I finally understood [AlanF] correctly, he believes that you don't have false gods and a true God; you just have gods. Just like you don't have a true human and a false human, you just have humans. You don't have false cows and true cows you just have cows. So all are truly gods whether it be the Father , the Son, Satan, angels, idols, Baal, etc. What is false is the worship of any god but God (the Father). He believes the Bible teaches henotheism: the worship of one god without denying the existence of other gods. What do you think? - Kenneson, 10-Nov-03 03:40 GMT
I think your synopsis is correct and agree, with this qualification - that while it does not deny the existence of other gods, it denies the existence of other gods worthy of worship. This comes back to the point made earlier on this thread, that if we are to understand what the Bible writers meant we have to adopt the thinking of the audience for whom they wrote.
Earnest
