On Philo and Gen. 1:26: doesn't Philo believe the "us" to be God and the Logos? I don't believe that Philo believed that angels made man. "Let us make man..." - Kenneson, 13-Nov-03 03:49 GMT
Kenneson, I based my statement that Philo and others interpreted "Let us make man..." as dialogue between God and the angels on the Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament, Brown, Driver, Briggs, 1929, p.43a, sec.3 where it discusses the meaning of elohim and states:
1b divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels [Psalm 8:5] (Franz Delitzsch, T.K.Cheyne, C.A.Briggs; but angels LXX, Syriac Version, Targum, H.Ewald; God, RV and most moderns) [Genesis 1:26] (if with Philo, Targum, Jerome, Franz Delitzsch, T.K.Cheyne we interpret asah ["Let us make"] as God's consultation with angels; cf. Job 38:7).
On further investigation I found that Philo wrote a commentary "On the Creation" (De Opificio Mundi) in which he recognises that God had helpers in the work of creation.
It is on this account that Moses says, at the creation of man alone that God said, "Let us make man," which expression shows an assumption of other beings to himself as assistants... (chapter XXIV)
It is actually quite instructive to read what Philo taught because there is no doubt in my mind that the Jews were prepared to accept the idea of the Logos at God's right hand by the time the Christian congregation was established.
So, for example, in "On the Confusion of Tongues" (De Cofusione Linguarum) he writes:
And even if there be not as yet any one who is worthy to be called a son of God, nevertheless let him labour earnestly to be adorned according to his first-born word, the eldest of his angels, as the great archangel of many names; for he is called, the authority, and the name of God, and the Word, and man according to God's image, and he who sees Israel. - chapter XXVIII.
In "On Dreams" (De Somniis) he writes:
For just as those who are unable to see the sun itself see the gleam of the parhelion and take it for the sun, and take the halo round the moon for that luminary itself, so some regard the image of God, His angel the Word, as His very self. - chapter XLI.
In "Who is the Heir of Divine Things" (Quis rerum divinarum Heres sit) he writes:
And the Father who created the universe has given to his archangelic and most ancient Word a pre-eminent gift, to stand on the confines of both, and separated that which had been created from the Creator. And this same Word is continually a suppliant to the immortal God on behalf of the mortal race, which is exposed to affliction and misery; and is also the ambassador, sent by the Ruler of all, to the subject race. - chapter XLII.
A regards your comments that first-born "does not necessarily mean the first one who was born or created", I would agree that there are examples of those who are not first-born being given the rights of the first-born (as happened with Esau and Jacob). But unless it is very clear that it is referring to the rights of the first-born rather than the first-born himself, I think the scripture should be taken at face value. And I see no reason that Colossians 1:15 should be read any differently.
You also suggest that "firstborn" does not always imply subsequent children. That simply goes against reason as I discussed previously. You do not refer to a firstborn son if there are not others to contrast him with. Romans 8:29, which you give as an example, speaks of God's Son as the firstborn "among many brothers". In verse 17 of the same chapter Paul makes the point that as children of God they are heirs, "heirs indeed of God, but joint heirs with Christ". Christ and his disciples are God's sons (vs 14), are joint heirs, are brothers.
Earnest