Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

by slimboyfat 171 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Blotty

    Terms like qanah, which have multiple meanings (e.g., “acquire,” “possess,” “create”), are context-dependent. Your answer, “actually it does,” doesn’t provide specific evidence or a clear engagement with this principle of nuanced translation. Instead, you shift to discussing Aquila’s translation of Genesis 1:1 and the Septuagint (LXX). Aquila's and the LXX's translations may differ because they had different theological motivations and linguistic approaches. The Septuagint translators, for example, rendered Proverbs 8:22 with ektisen (created), likely influenced by a philosophical view of Wisdom’s relationship to God, not because qanah universally means “create.” Aquila, conversely, often emphasized literalism. This divergence doesn't invalidate your point that translators adapt meaning based on context; it actually supports it, highlighting the interpretive flexibility within the translation tradition.

    You claim that David was the first king “begotten” or chosen by God, dismissing my argument about his non-literal “firstborn” status. To clarify, David was not the first king; Saul was. While David is called the “firstborn” (Psalm 89:27), this denotes his preeminence among kings, not a literal first in temporal order. The designation “firstborn” is often used symbolically in Scripture to denote preeminence or favor, as in the cases of Ephraim (Jeremiah 31:9) and Israel (Exodus 4:22), neither of whom were literally firstborn. David’s status as “firstborn” underscores his preeminent role in God’s covenant, not a chronological birth order or literal first kingship. This argument is well-supported in biblical scholarship.

    You accuse me of misrepresenting their view, stating that you never claimed Ephraim’s designation was about “birth” in a literal sense. I was correct in addressing the non-literal use of “firstborn.” In biblical contexts, the term “firstborn” often conveys priority in status rather than actual birth order. While you may not have directly stated a belief in literal birth order, their point about “pre-eminence” could imply a misunderstanding. Biblical usage shows that “firstborn” can denote a unique relationship or role (as with Ephraim) without implying that Christ was a part of creation as the Arians argued. This affirms the theological distinction between Christ as eternally begotten, not created or temporally first.

    The Hebrew verb qanah indeed has a range of meanings that include “acquire,” “possess,” and in some cases “create,” depending on context. However, there is no inherent implication of “creation from nothing” (ex nihilo) in qanah. The fact that qanah can refer to acquiring or possessing something emphasizes a relationship rather than creation out of non-existence, especially in Proverbs 8:22, where Wisdom is traditionally understood as co-eternal with God in many interpretations. Your argument does not assume that they believe in ex nihilo creation but simply clarifies that qanah does not necessarily denote such an idea.

    The appeal to cognate languages is standard in linguistic studies to understand potential meanings, but context in Hebrew is crucial. Burney uses Aramaic and Arabic cognates to illustrate possible meanings, yet he acknowledges that Hebrew usage must guide interpretation. The examples in Hebrew where qanah is translated as “create” do not inherently support an Arian interpretation of Proverbs 8:22. Each instance must be understood within its literary and theological context, which Burney and others do, without assuming a single, rigid meaning. Therefore, reliance on cognate languages does not detract from my point that qanah can mean “possess” in Proverbs 8.

    You state, “Babies are technically ‘created.’” This is a misunderstanding of the argument. Eve’s use of qanah does not imply “creation out of nothing” but rather acknowledges God’s assistance in her ability to bear Cain. The point here is that qanah does not inherently imply “creation from nothing”; rather, it indicates acquisition or possession. Eve didn’t create Cain independently; she received him. Likewise, Proverbs 8:22’s use of qanah does not necessitate a literal creation but can imply the eternal relationship between God and Wisdom, understood in Christian theology as an attribute eternally “possessed” by God, not created.

    Theological “motivation” may play a role in interpretation, but my approach here is exegetical, focusing on the text’s linguistic and historical context. Accusations of theological bias or trolling do not engage with the substance of my argument, which relies on recognized principles of exegesis and interpretation rather than doctrinal presuppositions. A respectful and reasoned dialogue about different interpretations could allow both parties to explore the text more deeply.

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    "A respectful and reasoned dialogue about different interpretations could allow both parties to explore the text more deeply." - learn what respect means.... and change your attitude then I may show you respect... until then, not happening....

    > If someone asks you to atop posting long posts and you continue doing so - is that showing respect?
    > Is flooding WItness blogs with garbage when they ask you not too repect?
    > is posting user names such as "hahahaha" or "lolololol" respect?

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    [if you do not answer the above, I will simply repaste in to every responce from now on]

    and Where is my dictionary citaiton? I now know 100% that was a fake dicitonary made up by you or one of your friends - otherwise you would be more than happy to provide a title to it.. There is no other reason you wouldnt provide - anyone else on this website would - hence they are more credible than you.

    "Aquila, conversely, often emphasized literalism." - EXACTLY AS BRITTANICA STATED, hence Aquilas slavishly literal (from now on: Hyper literal) translation - Aquila translates the literal word NOT its intended meaning.. That's up to the readers to figure out (BEST translations method IMO, unless its an idoim that makes no sense in the target language)

    This is why he preferred the Greek equivalent to QNH's possessed meaning, Whereas the LXX preferred "Ektisen" in this case and Gen 14:19,22.

    " While David is called the “firstborn” (Psalm 89:27), this denotes his preeminence among kings, not a literal first in temporal order." - Was Saul related (direct blood relative) to David or in the same geneological line? No he was not... so we can dismiss Saul because David was temporally first in the sense his line was the choosen ("begotten") messianic line. Consequently he is the first of that line to be selected.

    also see: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Samuel%207%3A12-16&version=NIV

    Saul is also invalid because he was removed by God - David was the First King "placed" by God (This is one of the two possible interpretations)

    "the cases of Ephraim (Jeremiah 31:9) and Israel (Exodus 4:22), neither of whom were literally firstborn." - Firstborn has a temporal sense in BOTH cases - Deaut 32 explains why Isreal was Gods "Firstborn" its the nation God "adopted" first. Ephraim has TWO possible explanations because there is also a nation called 2 perons or things called by that name.

    "This argument is well-supported in biblical scholarship." - cite a REPUTABLE source please.. not one your theolgoically motivated friends

    "I was correct in addressing the non-literal use of “firstborn.”" - you have addressed that over 100 times , Im not as dense as you seem to be... I dont need 5 million explanations of the same thing

    " Therefore, reliance on cognate languages does not detract from my point that qanah can mean “possess” in Proverbs 8." - but even so, The NET (ONe among many sources) and Burney himself state that "created" is the most likely intended meaning due to

    - the verbs used in 23 -25

    - Gen 14:19, 20, Deut 32:6 etc - Where they all must mean "created"

    - LXX, syriac translations

    and many other points

    "This is a misunderstanding of the argument. Eve’s use of qanah does not imply “creation out of nothing” but rather acknowledges God’s assistance in her ability to bear Cain." - right back at you "This is a misunderstanding of the argument." - you did not read my argument at all.

    "but my approach here is exegetical, focusing on the text’s linguistic and historical context." - if this were true, you would consider more evidence than your theologically motivated friends, the church fathers and your selective use of philosophical terms to suit your agenda - becuae I can do the same thing with passages like Col 2:9 and others to suit mine

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    For the Son of God, the First-born of all creation, although He seemed recently to have become incarnate, is not by any means on that account recent. For the holy Scriptures know Him to be the most ancient of all the works of creation; for it was to Him that God said regarding the creation of man, Let Us make man in Our image, after Our likeness. (Against Celsus, BOOK V, Chapter 37)

    pulling out another of my many "backups"

  • Nathan Natas
    Nathan Natas

    Such TRIVIAL, TIME_WASTING NONSENSE, Slim!

    How many angels can dance on the head of a pin? Are angels IMMENSE, or are they tiny, like fairies? Are they smaller than quarks (not the Star Trek character, the sub atomic particle-thing).

    THOSE are the questions with which we should be concerned, RIGHT, Slim?

    You be you. You provide lots of mental roughage.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Blotty

    You claim my dictionary citation is fabricated because I haven’t provided a title. This accusation is unwarranted, as I have repeatedly used standard lexicons and reputable biblical dictionaries. Here is a direct citation: The Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon (BDB), which is widely recognized in academic settings, lists qanah with meanings such as “acquire,” “possess,” and “create” in certain contexts. You can refer to BDB under the entry for qanah for verification. Additionally, The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament (HALOT) provides similar definitions, confirming the range of meanings and context-dependence of qanah. Accusing me of fabricating sources is an ad hominem attack that does not engage with the linguistic evidence I presented. I didn't mark the other dictionary because it's not in English, so obviously you wouldn't understand it, I translated the important part into English.

    You claim that David was the “first” king “chosen” by God because he was from the Messianic line and not a direct descendant of Saul. However, this is not how “firstborn” is used in biblical contexts. “Firstborn” in Psalm 89:27 refers to David’s preeminence, not his chronological order or bloodline relation to Saul. Saul’s disqualification as king due to disobedience doesn’t alter the fact that he was the first king anointed by God for Israel. David being “firstborn” is about covenantal prominence, not temporal sequence, as demonstrated by similar symbolic uses of “firstborn” (e.g., Israel in Exodus 4:22 and Ephraim in Jeremiah 31:9).

    You assert that “firstborn” has a temporal meaning in both Israel’s and Ephraim’s cases, citing Deuteronomy 32 and Jeremiah 31:9. However, these examples do not align with a strict chronological firstborn status. “Firstborn” for Israel signifies their unique covenantal relationship with God among the nations, not that they were literally the first nation. Likewise, Ephraim, though not literally the firstborn of Joseph’s sons, is given preeminence over his older brother, Manasseh, illustrating that “firstborn” often denotes rank or honor, not birth order. This is consistent with the non-literal use of “firstborn” for David in Psalm 89:27.

    You requested reputable sources that support “firstborn” as a title of preeminence. The Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary (AYBD) under the entry for “Firstborn” provides ample scholarly context showing that the term denotes preeminence or favored status in many biblical passages. Richard S. Hess’s commentary on “firstborn” also discusses its symbolic and covenantal uses. These are reputable sources widely accepted in scholarly circles, not works by “theologically motivated friends.”

    You argue that Burney and the NET Bible favor “created” for qanah in Proverbs 8:22 based on the context of verses 23-25 and passages like Genesis 14:19, 20, and Deuteronomy 32:6. While some scholars, including Burney, interpret qanah in Proverbs 8 as “created,” others support “possessed” or “acquired,” arguing that the context refers to Wisdom’s eternal relationship with God rather than temporal creation. For example, The New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology and Exegesis (NIDOTTE) suggests that qanah here implies acquisition in an eternal sense rather than creation in time. The NET Bible and Burney’s interpretation are valid, but they are not the only views among scholars.

    In my previous point, I clarified that Eve’s use of qanah in Genesis 4:1 does not imply creation ex nihilo but rather acquisition with divine help. You misinterpret this by suggesting that I missed your point. My argument is that qanah denotes receiving or acquiring something with God’s assistance, aligning with the concept of procreation rather than the theological notion of ex nihilo creation. This example illustrates qanah’s flexibility and supports that Proverbs 8:22 could convey a relationship rather than an act of creation.

    Your response accuses me of relying on “theologically motivated friends,” selective use of terms, and cherry-picking church fathers. However, my approach has consistently been based on recognized linguistic and exegetical methods. Biblical interpretation involves understanding linguistic, cultural, and historical contexts, which scholars across denominations apply. Accusations of bias without addressing the actual arguments are unproductive. If you prefer scholarly sources free of denominational influence, I recommend consulting works like The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament (HALOT), The Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon, and the Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary, which reflect broad academic consensus.

    Your latest response reflects frustration rather than substantive engagement with the textual and scholarly arguments provided. Addressing theological topics requires patience, thoroughness, and respect for different perspectives. I have repeatedly demonstrated a consistent approach based on reputable scholarship and linguistic analysis. If you are open to scholarly dialogue rather than personal attacks, I would be glad to continue our discussion and further explore the nuances of qanah and “firstborn” in the context of biblical theology.

    Origen's passage in Against Celsus is often misunderstood in terms of its Christology, especially in light of Arius's later teachings. Although Origen describes the Son as “the First-born of all creation,” this phrase should not be interpreted in an Arian sense that places the Son among created beings, as a creature with a definitive beginning in time. Here’s why this passage does not support an Arian interpretation and how it should be properly understood within Origen’s theological framework.

    When Origen uses the phrase "First-born of all creation," he does not mean that the Son is merely the foremost creature, as Arius would argue. Instead, in Origen’s theology, the term prototokos (πρωτότοκος) implies a unique and singular relationship between the Father and the Son, signifying the Son’s eternal generation. Origen saw the Son as eternally generated by the Father, meaning that the Son's "begottenness" is without beginning or end, a continuous, timeless act of the Father.

    In the Greek text, the word πρεσβύτατον (presbyteros), meaning "most ancient," emphasizes the Son's existence before all creation, positioning the Son outside of the created order. Origen argues that the Son "is not recent," which directly counters any interpretation suggesting that the Son's existence had a beginning in time or that He could be classified among created beings.

    Origen consistently differentiates between the eternal generation of the Son and the temporal act of creation. The Son’s “generation” from the Father is an eternal, ongoing relationship, not a moment in time like the creation of the world. This distinguishes the Son from creatures, who come into existence ex nihilo (from nothing) and at a distinct point in time. For Origen, the Son is begotten, not made, and He participates fully in the Father’s divine nature, which is an uncreated nature.

    The phrase “the most ancient of all the works of creation” could be misleading without the broader context. Origen likely uses “works of creation” (δημιουργημάτων) not to imply that the Son is a creation, but to place the Son in a relation to creation as its divine origin. By saying the Son is “the most ancient,” Origen points to the Son’s primacy and role in creation, not His inclusion within the category of created things.

    Additionally, in other writings, Origen makes it clear that while the Son has a “primacy” in relation to creation, He remains qualitatively different from it, sharing the Father’s divine essence in a way creatures cannot. Thus, when Origen refers to the Son in relation to creation, he emphasizes the Son’s distinction as the origin and sustainer of creation rather than as part of it.

    Origen cites the Genesis account, "Let Us make man in Our image, after Our likeness," to show the Son’s presence with the Father before the act of creation. By associating the Son with the Father in the creative act, Origen reinforces that the Son is co-eternal with the Father and shares in the divine essence, acting as an agent of creation rather than as a created being.

    This distinction aligns with Origen’s understanding that the Son is the divine Logos, who participates in the Father’s work as a unique, uncreated expression of God’s wisdom and power.

    Origen’s theology as a whole clearly rejects the idea that the Son is a created being. Although Arius later attempted to use similar language to argue for the Son's subordination and created nature, Origen’s understanding of the Son’s eternal generation inherently contradicts any suggestion of temporal creation. Origen sees the Son’s divinity as fully participating in the Father’s essence, precluding any interpretation that would reduce the Son to the status of a creature.

    Origen’s understanding of the term "created" (ktistós) in relation to the Son must be carefully contextualized to avoid confusion with later Arian interpretations that emerged in the 4th century. In Origen’s time, during the 3rd century, the vocabulary of "creation" and "creature" (ktisma) had a broader and less rigid theological application. The use of these terms did not automatically imply an inferior or ontologically separate nature from God, nor did it suggest that the Son was a creation in the Arian sense, as something entirely distinct from the Father’s essence or subordinate in divinity.

    For Origen, "created" could refer to the Son’s role in relation to the created order, highlighting the Son's unique function as the "First-born of all creation," who mediates between God and creation. This expression emphasizes the Son's primacy and preeminence, and it aligns with Origen's conception of the Son as eternally begotten by the Father—an idea fundamentally different from the Arian notion of a created, finite being. Origen understood the Son to exist eternally with the Father, derived from the Father’s essence in a way that maintained full divinity, while also being distinct as a "hypostasis" or person.

    Before the Arian controversy, the term "created" did not imply, as it did later under Arian influence, a clear subordinationist position or a denial of the Son’s divinity. Origen’s use of "created" thus reflected a flexible and nuanced approach, which was neither literal in the sense of a temporal beginning nor implying inferiority, but rather a metaphorical language to express the Son’s relationship to creation and the Father. In the 4th century, however, Arian theology rigidly reinterpreted "creation" to argue that the Son had a beginning in time and was of a different substance from the Father, which fundamentally departed from Origen’s theological framework.

    Thus, Origen’s language regarding the Son as "created" or "first-born" should be understood within his context, where it did not denote the same implications that Arian thought later imposed. Instead, it was part of a rich, symbolic language used to affirm the Son’s role in creation while upholding his eternal and divine relationship to the Father.

  • Blotty
    Blotty

    please answer: https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/6240527658254336/alteration-revelation-3-14-4th-century-support-emerging-trinity-doctrine?page=11#/5144211821690880

    "Accusing me of fabricating sources is an ad hominem attack that does not engage with the linguistic evidence I presented. I didn't mark the other dictionary because it's not in English, so obviously you wouldn't understand it, I translated the important part into English."

    - so since I wouldn't understand it, since its not in english you wont tell even the title and page number?

    Thats the most pathetic things Iv ever heard, have you actaully ever read academic articles? if you claim to be "careful" in your linguistic analysis you would provide ALL your sources! whether I "understand them" or not is besides the point

    this proves you havent read academic papers at all. Else you would know they cite ALL sources no matter if they are in english or not - your no scholar and you are not careful..

    "I translated the important part into English." - I should trust your translations because? How have you proven to be a reliable source in the last 3 days? simple answer: you haven't

    "Saul’s disqualification as king due to disobedience doesn’t alter the fact that he was the first king anointed by God for Israel. " - God never made the covenant with Saul tho did he? David was temporally first in that regard. followed by Solomon. The messiah was to come from DAVIDS line NOT SAULS

    Naturally it would only be made with one who was a blood relative to Jesus.

    " David being “firstborn” is about covenantal prominence" - was David the first one God made the DAVIDIC (or messianic) covenant with? yes or no?

    "“Firstborn” for Israel signifies their unique covenantal relationship with God among the nations, not that they were literally the first nation." - were they the first nation to have this status? yes or no?

    by "Temporal in some sense" I mean that you have to be First to have/ get something you previously did not have..

    e.g Israel

    israel was NOT the first nation created (it could be, the bible never comments on such a thing)

    BUT it IS the first nation to enter into tis unique relationship with God - this is a temporal sense & a temporal first

    Why I have to explain this I dont know - every other catholic/ protestant/ anglican/ whatever understands this first go and doesnt have to repeat the same argument over and over...

    AQWSD": Your latest response reflects frustration rather than substantive engagement with the textual and scholarly arguments provided. "

    also AQWSD: doesnt cite a single scholarly source until backed nto a corner and called out on it

    also doesnt provide a dicionary citaion when asked because it was "in another language"

    asked to stop making long posts - continues doing so...

    double standards at its finest..

    " sharing the Father’s divine essence in a way creatures cannot. " - does Origen actaully say this? or are you "helping" one of the most honest scholars in history with his woridng - Which i doubt Origen of all people need help with.

    "a clear subordinationist position or a denial of the Son’s divinity. " - divine learly doesnt mean the same thing to you as it does to me - your term is never defined by any church father I can find...

    "Divine" atleast to me means a spirit creature...angels (Who Origen also calls divine and theos) I can find no church father who makes a distinction, except for Atha, but I think he is about as credible as you.. so in the trash heap essentailly until proven otherwise.

    "it was part of a rich, symbolic language used to affirm the Son’s role in creation while upholding his eternal and divine relationship to the Father." - so Origen essentially said what Arius said... but didnt mean the same thing... tho explicitly states basically what the Witnesses think, but no he doesnt actaully mean that - we should believe you, someone who has lied constantly - over the most honest scholar probably in history?

    Im going to say no and go with what Origen says:

    The father is autotheos - the Son is not..

    The son is the most ancient of the works of creation

    Angels are called "gods" because they are Divine (tho SHOULD NOT be worshiped in place of god)

    Why did Jerome compare Origen to Arius then? and say his writings were "full of heresy"? Why does Jerome admit that tampering did occur with Origens wriitngs?

    "And yet they covertly struck at Origen as the source of the Arian heresy: for, in condemning those who deny the Son to be of the substance of the Father, they have condemned Origen as much as Arius...”"

    - (source of quote: https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/3001084.htm#:~:text=And%20yet%20they%20covertly%20struck,Origen%20as%20much%20as%20Arius.)

    just one source for ref (I have more):https://matt13weedhacker.blogspot.com/2010/12/jerome-said-all-of-origens-books-were.html

    you know eternity works in 2 directions right? It is highly possible Origen means from a certain point into the future, Origen also believes souls are eternal (those quotes are attributed to Origen for a reason :) )- but obviously that eternity goes in 1 direction.

    “theologically motivated friends,” - you dont know the reputation of ones like Trevor R allin and other sources you cite do you? they have been proven time and time again to LIE

    i.e one of your sources previously claimed ho on appears in Heb 1:2... funfact: it doesnt - this person tried to defend this in many ways "Hos on" and "ho on" DO NOT mean the same thing... they lied- case closed

    ho on appears in the LXX of Ex 3:15, ho is the masculine definite article... Hos is a the masuline relative pronoun...

    thats just one example off the top of my head... I have an entire list stored I could upload and cite..

    I have caught you lieing here and else where NUMEROUS times... (I can also cite those in a public post on here if you like? (genuine question))

    Trevor R Allin is a "known" liar on this forum... see Wonderments posts from around 8 years ago.. He got massively exposed for lieing about John 8:58 and Beduhn..

    THe man clearly did not read Robertsons or barclays or Horts Commentaries... else he would have known not to accuse beduhn of what he did... He is not a trusted source, anything that man says can go straight in the garbage unless he can provide proper evidence (Which, like you - He never does)...

    " selective use of terms" - you literally cherry pick when philosophical meanings apply and dont.... I have seen you do this on other websites... Col 2:9 springs to mind... Either we apply philosophical terms or dont - which is it?

    "cherry-picking church fathers" - never seen anyone more notorious for doing this.. The Witnesses are more reliable than you, and thats saying something.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Blotty

    I clearly live rent free in your head, maybe you should deal less with my person and much more with the content of what I have to say for its merit.

    Your accusation that I "fabricated" sources simply because I didn’t provide a title and page number in another language is misplaced. In academic discourse, if a source is not accessible to the reader, it is common practice to translate or paraphrase relevant sections to facilitate understanding. This practice is standard, especially if a source’s language poses a barrier to comprehension. But if you're so insistent, feel free to check it out on page 110 (or 64), you won't get very far without my translation. The cited sources, such as The Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon (BDB) and The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament (HALOT), are standard references in biblical Hebrew studies, used universally. Suggesting that I “made up” these sources is a baseless attack and avoids addressing the actual content and linguistic evidence presented. These lexicons confirm that qanah has multiple meanings, including “acquire” and “possess,” which is entirely relevant to the context in Proverbs 8:22.

    Your distrust of my translation is understandable if you question its accuracy; however, this skepticism does not invalidate the arguments presented. The translation of non-English sources into English is a regular academic practice, and translations are vetted by established experts in the field. Furthermore, I am open to providing additional citations upon request, but dismissing my translation without engaging with the argument itself demonstrates an unwillingness to engage with the substantive points about th semantic range qanah or arkhe.

    Your interpretation of David as “firstborn” seems to hinge on the idea that he was the first in the “messianic line,” thus holding a unique status over Saul. However, “firstborn” in Psalm 89:27 clearly denotes a position of preeminence rather than a temporal sequence. Saul’s anointing by God is undeniable (1 Samuel 10:1), and his removal from kingship does not retroactively make him any less the first king anointed. The term “firstborn” is consistently used throughout Scripture to indicate preeminence or favored status, as seen in Israel’s designation (Exodus 4:22) and Ephraim’s (Jeremiah 31:9), rather than a literal or genealogical “first.” David’s designation as “firstborn” refers to his preeminent role in God’s covenantal plan, not a temporal “first.”

    You argue that Israel’s designation as “firstborn” is “temporal” in the sense that they were the “first nation to enter into a unique relationship with God.” While this argument has some merit, the temporal sense is secondary to the primary theological meaning: Israel’s favored status and covenantal role among nations. In Exodus 4:22, “firstborn” is used metaphorically to show Israel’s special relationship with God, not literal birth order. The usage of “firstborn” across various biblical passages demonstrates that it often signifies rank and privilege, emphasizing Israel’s unique position rather than a purely chronological designation.

    Your assertion that I cite sources only when “backed into a corner” is simply incorrect. I have consistently referenced standard lexicons, such as BDB and HALOT, and reputable scholarly sources, including The Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary (AYBD). Dismissing these sources without engaging with the arguments or examining their content undermines the scholarly nature of this discussion. If you are genuinely interested in scholarly engagement, I encourage you to review these sources yourself rather than rejecting them without examination.

    Your interpretation of Origen’s understanding of the Son’s divinity appears selective and out of context. Origen did distinguish between the Father as autotheos (that is unbegotten God) and the Son, yet he did not deny the Son’s divinity. In Contra Celsum and other writings, Origen explicitly maintains the Son’s eternal generation, affirming that the Son shares in the Father’s divine essence. While Origen’s vocabulary predates later Trinitarian definitions, he clearly upheld the Son’s unique relationship with the Father, which is distinct from created beings. Accusing me of “helping” Origen or misrepresenting his words does not align with Origen’s well-documented position on the Son’s divinity, which is acknowledged by reputable Origen scholars like Joseph W. Trigg and Ronald Heine.

    You suggest that Origen’s use of “divine” applies equally to angels and to Christ, thereby reducing the Son’s status. However, Origen made a clear distinction between the Son and created beings, even if he used the term “divine” more broadly than later theology. He recognized the Son as uniquely begotten and co-eternal with the Father, while angels and other beings are created. Your failure to recognize this nuance distorts Origen’s theological intent. Origen scholars frequently discuss how his use of “divine” aligns with his understanding of the Son’s unique generation and distinction from creatures.

    Your reference to Jerome’s critique of Origen does not substantiate your argument. Jerome’s relationship with Origen’s work was complex; while Jerome respected Origen’s scholarship, he also criticized some of Origen’s views, especially in light of the Arian controversy. Jerome’s comparison of Origen to Arius is not definitive proof that Origen shared Arian beliefs. Rather, it reflects the post-Nicene sensitivity to any theological statements that could be interpreted as subordinationist. Origen’s theology predates Arianism, and he did not conceive of the Son’s “creation” in the Arian sense. As scholars such as Elizabeth A. Clark have noted, Origen’s theology was later misinterpreted and criticized due to doctrinal developments that postdated his writings.

    Origen’s usage of terms like "firstborn" or "created" reflects a different theological framework than Arius. Origen, as a third-century theologian, uses the term "firstborn" to denote relational primacy, not chronological or ontological inferiority. His concept of the eternal generation of the Son illustrates that the Son is derived from the Father without implying a created status, an idea distinct from Arianism, which posits that the Son has a temporal beginning. So the fact that Jerome linked Origen to Arianism does not mean Origen actually held Arian views; rather, it reflects later theological polemics and misinterpretations of Origen's language. Even within Jerome’s criticisms, historical context is essential: Jerome’s views were partly influenced by theological controversies of his own time, and Jerome himself acknowledged that many writings attributed to Origen were tampered with over the years.

    You argue that Origen’s language implies a “temporal” eternity for the Son, implying a beginning. This interpretation contradicts Origen’s concept of eternal generation, where the Son is continuously begotten by the Father without a starting point in time. Origen’s use of terms like “most ancient” refers to the Son’s primacy and role as the Logos, not a finite origin. Suggesting that Origen’s view aligns with Arian beliefs about the Son’s temporality misreads Origen’s statements. Scholars such as John Behr and Mark Edwards clarify that Origen saw the Son’s generation as an eternal act, not one bound by temporal limitations.

    Your claim that I rely on “theologically motivated friends” like Trevor R. Allin without checking their credibility is unsubstantiated. While Allin and others may have differing interpretations, dismissing a source solely on hearsay without addressing the specific arguments presented reflects an ad hominem approach. Biblical exegesis requires examining arguments on their own merit, not discounting them based on personal opinions about the author. For instance, Colossians 2:9 has been widely debated, and both Allin’s and others’ interpretations should be considered carefully. Broadly rejecting sources without engagement limits meaningful discourse.

    Your response reflects frustration rather than substantive engagement with scholarly arguments. Rather than addressing the points I have made, your approach relies on personal accusations, dismissive comments, and misrepresentations. I have repeatedly provided standard scholarly sources, carefully contextualized Origen’s theology, and clarified the semantic nuances of terms like qanah, arkhé and “firstborn.” If you are open to continuing this dialogue in a civil andd scholarly manner, I encourage you to engage with the specific arguments and sources I have presented rather than focusing on ad hominem attacks and generalizations.

  • Duran
    Duran

    @aqwsed

    In your view of your 'Jehovah spirit/Jesus man God' being one in the same, having always existed not being created, did that God create all his said 'spirit sons'?

    How would you refer/describe the first created 'spirit son' in relation to your Jehovah/Jesus God?

    Did your Jehovah/Jesus God create Adam?

    How would you refer/describe Adam in relation to your Jehovah/Jesus God?

    __________________________

    [ 17Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”]

    Who is Jesus' God and Father referring to there?

    Who are Jesus' brothers there?

    Who is God and Father of the said brothers referring to there?

    ____________________

    [ 29 because those whom he gave his first recognition he also foreordained to be patterned after the image of his Son, so that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.]

    Who is he/his referring to there?

    Who is Son referring to there and how is he 'firstborn among many brothers'?

    Who are the 'many brothers' referring to there?

    _____________________

    [ 18 For Christ died once for all time for sins, a righteous person for unrighteous ones, in order to lead you to God. He was put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit.19 And in this state he went and preached to the spirits in prison,]

    Who are the 'spirits in prison' referring to there?

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Duran

    In orthodox Christian belief, Jesus, as the second person of the the Godhead (the Word), is indeed uncreated and eternally existent, co-equal with the Father and the Holy Spirit. The biblical witness aligns with this doctrine in passages such as John 1:1–3, which states that "all things were made through Him, and without Him was not anything made that was made." This directly points to the fact that Jesus, as the Word (Logos), participated in creation, including the creation of all spiritual beings, also known as "angels" or "spirit sons."

    The Bible does not identify a "first-created spirit son" in relation to Jehovah/Jesus, but rather presents Jesus Himself as the "only begotten Son" (John 3:16) — meaning unique, not created but eternally begotten by the Father. This is not a biological process but a relational distinction within the divine nature, which is beyond full human comprehension.

    As noted in passages like John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16–17, Jesus (as the Logos) was instrumental in the creation of all things, including humanity. Colossians 1:16 specifically states, "For by Him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible." Thus, orthodox theology understands that the Triune God — Father, Son, and Holy Spirit — collectively created Adam. This indicates Jesus’ active role in creation.

    Adam, in relation to Jesus, is viewed as a created being, made in the image of God but distinct from Jesus, who is uncreated and divine by nature. This underscores the unique distinction of Jesus as eternally divine, not a part of creation.

    In John 20:17, Jesus’ statement, “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God,” reflects His role within the Incarnation. Jesus, as both fully God and fully man, speaks here in His humanity. He acknowledges God the Father from the standpoint of His human nature, showing that as the incarnate Son, He remained in perfect submission to the Father. This reflects the theological truth that, although Jesus is divine, He assumed a genuine human nature in the Incarnation, through which He referred to God as His Father.

    The "brothers" in this verse refer to His followers, who, through faith, are adopted as children of God (Romans 8:14–17). Through Christ, believers share in this relationship with God as Father, albeit in a different way than Christ, who is the unique Son of God by nature, while believers are adopted.

    In Romans 8:29, the text describes Christ as "the firstborn among many brothers." Here, "firstborn" signifies preeminence and rank rather than temporal origin. Jesus, in His human nature, is the first to be resurrected in a glorified body, setting the pattern for believers who will follow. The “many brothers” in this context are believers, who, through adoption, become children of God and are conformed to the image of Christ.

    The "He" in this verse refers to God the Father, who "foreordained" believers to be "patterned after the image of His Son." The Son, therefore, holds the position of "Firstborn" by virtue of His resurrection and supremacy over creation, as indicated also in Colossians 1:15–18.

    In 1 Peter 3:18, the apostle Peter draws a profound connection between Christ's suffering and death and the faithful endurance required of believers. He emphasizes that Christ died "once for all," demonstrating that His sacrifice was perfect and sufficient, needing no repetition. This point aligns with other biblical teachings (see Romans 5:3, Ephesians 2:16, Hebrews 4:14, and 10:19) that underscore the singularity and completeness of Christ’s atonement.

    Peter explains that Christ's death affected His physical nature, but His spirit, or divine essence, was unaffected by death. While His physical body suffered, His soul remained alive, ultimately entering a glorified state. This interpretation finds support in other New Testament texts that discuss Christ's exaltation and glorification. In 1 Peter 3:19, the apostle also references how Christ, "in spirit," preached to the "spirits in prison"—interpreted here as souls awaiting salvation or judgment.

    The church teaches that, before Christ's resurrection, both righteous and unrighteous souls resided in the "underworld" (the "limbo of the fathers" or "Abraham's bosom"), with the righteous awaiting the Messiah’s redemptive act to open heaven. When Christ "descended to the dead," He proclaimed His victory and salvation to those souls, fulfilling the hope that even those who repented in Noah's day, though initially unfaithful, were now offered redemption through Him. This doctrine, affirmed by the Church Fathers, asserts that the underworld held both the righteous and unrighteous until Christ's redemptive sacrifice completed salvation for all.

    Thus, 1 Peter 3:18-20 not only demonstrates Christ's enduring life and spiritual vitality beyond death but also speaks to His mission in the afterlife, fulfilling His redemptive work across all time and places. This passage reinforces the unity of Christ's divine and human natures and upholds the belief in His unique role as Savior, aligning perfectly with the doctrine of the Trinity.

    In conclusion, the concept of the Trinity and Christ’s eternal divinity is indeed rooted in Scripture, though it may seem complex. Far from being contradictory, these passages reveal a rich, cohesive view of Jesus’ identity as the uncreated Son, eternally one with the Father, through whom all things were made. Jesus’ humanity allowed Him to fulfill His role as Mediator, yet His divinity remains intact, as Scripture consistently affirms. The unique Son of God, Jesus, brings believers into relationship with God, exemplifying both His supreme authority and loving condescension to redeem humanity.

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