All About The Trinity

by UnDisfellowshipped 287 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • ellderwho
    ellderwho

    Herk;

    My answer is the one given in the Bible: "God created the heavens and the earth." Your response will be "Then Jesus is God because he is the creator, according to Colossians 1:15-17."

    "And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning didst lay the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the works of thy hands: Heb 1:10

    However, it is quite possible that Paul is thinking in this passage of the new creation initiated by the resurrection of Jesus, who is the first-born from the dead. (Col. 1:18)

    How does the above reasoning fit Heb1:10 ? Is this not a direct reference to the Genesis creation of the Heavens and earth?

    As always context is an important factor in gaining an understanding.

    Does Heb 1:10 in the mindset of the non-trinitarian conflict greatly with Isaiah 45:12;

    12I have made the earth, and created man upon it: I, even my hands, have stretched out the heavens;

    24Thus saith Jehovah, thy Redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb: I am Jehovah, that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth (who is with me?);

    And why does Yahweh ask the retorical question "who was with me"?

    "raising Christ;

    He spoke as he did because he had been assured by the Father that he would be raised.

    Show this thought from scripture.

    Jesus was not the Father, even as trinitarians acknowledge. He was the reflection or image of the Father, not because he was equal to the Father, but as he clearly explained: "The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own initiative, but the Father abiding in me does his works

    Its very interesting that the thought of Yahweh abiding in the shell of a man named Jesus(jah is salvation) or (God with us) who was also pleased that all of Yahwehs fullness dwealt bodily in the shell of a human named Jesus to do Yahwehs work and to build Yahwehs Heavens and earth (Heb1:10)and gave Paul the words to say that Jesus' equality with Yahweh was something we will not be able to understand. And John tells us that Yahwehs uttered Word became flesh.

    Maybe, just maybe, this is why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for Blasphemy in John 10:33

    33The Jews answered him, For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

    E

  • herk
    herk

    ellderwho,

    We disagree in many ways. I hope we can proceed on friendly terms to show where and why. My convinction is that Trinitarians are in error. They place a modern time frame on things that never entered into the minds of first-century Christians.

    You might not agree, but the combined testimony of all the New Testament (NT) writers is that Jesus is Messiah, not God. The very last NT writer, the apostle John, gave a summary statement about the purpose of his Gospel. He did not say, "I wrote all this down so that you will believe Jesus is God." Instead, he wrote that "these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God." (John 20:31) Non-trinitarians see a big difference between "God" and "Son of God."

    How does the above reasoning fit Heb1:10 ? Is this not a direct reference to the Genesis creation of the Heavens and earth?

    Hebrews 1:10 is addressed to Jesus, the Son of God. It's a quotation from Psalm 102. There God is addressed concerning his first creation. In a footnote on Psalm 102:26, The NIV Study Bible says: "With his first creation God clothed himself with the manifestation of his glory ... But he is more enduring than what he has made--and the first creation will give way to a new creation (see Isa 65:17; 66:22)" [The underlining is mine.]

    We have plenty of evidence that Hebrews 1:10 is speaking about the new creation and not the old.

    • Psalm 102 does not refer entirely to the literal heavens and earth since these will not perish. Many Bible passages either state or imply the continued existence of the earth. (Num. 14:21; 1 Chr. 16:30; Ps. 93:1; 104:5; Eccl. 1:4; Isa. 11:9; 45:18; Hab. 2:14) The "heavens and earth" are used figuratively elsewhere. (Compare Isa. 65:17; 66:22; and 2 Pet. 3:12, 13)

    • Psalm 102 is Messianic. It was written for the "generation to come; and the people which shall be created." (Ps. 102:13-16, 18) The Messiah is now making new men and women for his kingdom. In the NT, "create" is frequently used in reference to this regenerative work of the Lord. (2 Cor. 5:17; Gal. 6:15; Eph. 2:10, 15; 4:23, 24; Jas. 1:18)

    • The writer of Hebrews expressly says he was writing about the "the coming world" (Young's), "the world to come" (ASV, ESV, KJ21, KJV, NASB, NIV, NKJV, NLV), "the habitable world of the future" (Amplified Bible), "the habitable world which is to come" (Darby), "the future world" (CEV, NLT), "the next world" (World English NT). (Heb. 2:5) He calls it "the age to come" in Heb. 6:5 (NASB).

    • Hebrews 1:6 says, "When he again brings the firstborn into the world." It is clear that the author intends us to understand a reference to Jesus' function--by God's anointing--as founder of the coming world.

    • The heavens and earth which were to pass away, rolled up like a garment, are the Mosaic "heavens and earth." This is indicated by the following:

      • The writer to the Hebrews elsewhere in his epistle alludes to the language of Psalm 102:26 in describing the termination of the Mosaic order: "Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away." (Heb. 8:13)

      • The people "that shall be created" refers to those in the new covenant. (Ps. 102:18) It was prophesied of Christ: "Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first [old covenant], that he may establish the second. By the which will we [believers] are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all." (Heb. 10:9) Again, the context indicates the termination of the Mosaic order.

      • The argument in Hebrews 1 is that the Son has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than the angels. (Heb. 1:4) The reference to the Mosaic "heavens and earth" is an effective argument since angels administered the constitution. (Acts 7:38, 53; Gal. 3:19; Heb. 2:2) This was the constitution to be folded up as a garment by the Son--therefore the Son must have a more excellent name than the angels.

    Does Heb 1:10 in the mindset of the non-trinitarian conflict greatly with Isaiah 45:12;

    Not at all. We agree with Isa. 45:12 that God created the heavens and earth. And we agree with Heb. 1:10 that Jesus is the founder by God's anointing of the new creation and the world to come.

    And why does Yahweh ask the retorical question "who was with me"?

    That was a challenge to worshipers of all other gods. Yahweh alone is the Grand Creator.

    Re: John 10:18 - Show this thought from scripture.

    John 10:18 should need no explanation. Jesus said: "I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from my Father." A dead person, if truly dead, cannot resurrect himself. Jesus did not say he would resurrect himself. Instead, he said he would "take it up again." Similarly, if and when we are resurrected, we will "take it up again" where we left off.

    Its very interesting that the thought of Yahweh abiding in the shell of a man named Jesus(jah is salvation) or (God with us)

    The names Jesus and Immanuel do not mean Jesus is God any more than other Jewish names that speak well of God. God also abides in each true believer, but that does not make us equal to God, and it did not make Jesus equal to God.

    • John 14:23 - "We will come to him and make our abode with him."
    • 1 Cor. 3:16 - "You are a temple of God and ... the Spirit of God dwells in you."
    • 2 Cor. 6:16 - "we are the temple of the living God; just as God said, 'I will dwell in them.'"
    • 1 John 4:13 - "By this we know that we abide in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit."
    who was also pleased that all of Yahwehs fullness dwealt bodily in the shell of a human named Jesus to do Yahwehs work and to build Yahwehs Heavens and earth (Heb1:10)

    God's fullness is intended to dwell also in all Christians, "that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God." (Eph. 3:19)

    gave Paul the words to say that Jesus' equality with Yahweh was something we will not be able to understand.

    ??? Where is there such a passage in the Bible?

    John tells us that Yahwehs uttered Word became flesh.

    Yes, just as the heavens and earth came into existence when God said "Let there be light, etc." (Gen. 1) Just as the word of God produced a book called the Bible, it produced a man named Jesus Christ.

    Maybe, just maybe, this is why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for Blasphemy in John 10:33

    We must not make the mistake of thinking here in terms of our own century. The Jews knew very well that Jesus was not God. They knew that the heavens of the heavens could not contain God. But, in their minds, a man could be viewed as God in the way that King David was. For example, Psalm 45 is a song of praise to Israel's king. In verse 6, the king is addressed as "O God." The writer of Hebrews later applied this also to Jesus, the final king to sit upon David's throne. The psalmist called the king "God" because of his special relationship with God as his chief agent and spokesperson. So, when the Jews accused Jesus of making himself God, it was in that sense, not in any Trinitarian sense of the word.

    I hope this has clarified some of the non-trinitarian view.

    herk

  • ellderwho
    ellderwho

    Herk,

    God's fullness is intended to dwell also in all Christians, "that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God." (Eph. 3:19)

    I disagree in part;

    Eph. 2:9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and you have been given the fullness of Christ....

    Point being, we do not pocess "all the fullness of the Deity"

    Because Hebrews is addressed to the Jews not the Gentiles is revealing of Pauls message that he breaks barriers of the Law;

    Adam Clarke;

    To explain and illustrate this epistle multitudes have toiled hard; and exhibited
    much industry, much learning, and much piety. I also will show my opinion; and
    ten thousand may succeed me, and still bring out something that is new. That it
    was written to Jews, naturally such, the whole structure of the epistle proves. Had
    it been written to the Gentiles, not one in ten thousand of them could have
    comprehended the argument, because unacquainted with the Jewish system; the
    knowledge of which the writer of this epistle everywhere supposes. He who is
    well acquainted with the Mosaic law sits down to the study of this epistle with
    double advantages; and he who knows the traditions of the elders, and the
    Mishnaic illustrations of the written, and pretended oral law of the Jews, is still
    more likely to enter into and comprehend the apostle?s meaning. No man has
    adopted a more likely way of explaining its phraseology than Schoettgen, who
    has traced its peculiar diction to Jewish sources; and, according to him, the
    proposition of the whole epistle is this:?

    JESUS OF NAZARETH IS THE TRUE GOD

    And in order to convince the Jews of the truth of this proposition, the apostle
    uses but three arguments:

    1.Christ is superior to the angels.

    2.He is superior to Moses.

    3.He is superior to Aaron.

    These arguments would appear more distinctly were it not for the improper
    division of the chapters; as he who divided them in the middle ages (a division to
    which we are still unreasonably attached) had but a superficial knowledge of the
    word of God. In consequence of this it is that one peculiar excellency of the
    apostle is not noticed, viz. his application of every argument, and the strong
    exhortation founded on it. Schoettgen has very properly remarked, that
    commentators in general have greatly misunderstood the apostle?s meaning
    through their unacquaintance with the Jewish writings and their peculiar
    phraseology, to which the apostle is continually referring, and of which he makes
    incessant use. He also supposes, allowing for the immediate and direct
    inspiration of the apostle, that he had in view this remarkable saying of the
    rabbins, on Isaiah 52:13: "Behold, my servant will deal prudently." Rab.
    Tanchum, quoting Yalcut Simeoni, part ii., fol. 53, says: äéùîä êìî äæ , "This
    is the King Messiah, who shall be greatly extolled, and elevated: he shall be
    elevated beyond Abraham; shall be more eminent than Moses; and more exalted
    than äøùä éëàìîî the ministering angels." Or, as it is expressed in Yalcut
    Kadosh, fol. 144: äøùä éëàìî ïîå äùî ïîå úåáàä ïî ìåãâ äéùî
    Mashiach gadol min ha - aboth ; umin Mosheh ; umin Malakey
    hashshareth . "The Messiah is greater than the patriarchs; than Moses; and
    than the ministering angels." These sayings he shows to have been fulfilled in our
    Messiah; and as he dwells on the superiority of our Lord to all these illustrious
    persons because they were at the very top of all comparisons among the Jews; he,
    according to their opinion, who was greater than all these, must be greater than
    all created beings.

    This is the point which the apostle undertakes to prove, in order that he may
    show the Godhead of Christ; therefore, if we find him proving that Jesus was
    greater than the patriarchs, greater than Aaron, greater than Moses, and greater
    than the angels, he must be understood to mean, according to the Jewish
    phraseology, that Jesus is an uncreated Being, infinitely greater than all others,
    whether earthly or heavenly. For, as they allowed the greatest eminence (next to
    God) to angelic beings, the apostle concludes "that he who is greater than the
    angels is truly God: but Christ is greater than the angels; therefore Christ is truly
    God." Nothing can be clearer than that this is the apostle?s grand argument; and
    the proofs and illustrations of it meet the reader in almost every verse.

    Granted, this is one mans opinion, in sharp contrast to yours. highlighting mine

    Does Heb 1:10 in the mindset of the non-trinitarian conflict greatly with Isaiah 45:12;

    Not at all. We agree with Isa. 45:12 that God created the heavens and earth. And we agree with Heb. 1:10 that Jesus is the founder by God's anointing of the new creation and the world to come.

    Then how would Jn. 1:3 fit into your reference of Christ the new creation of things to come.Heb 1:10

    Or Col. 1:16 My point if He(Christ) is before "all things" then Heb 1:10 fits with the above quoted creation verses, without conflicting with creation verses of the OT.

    At somepoint the non-trinitarian has to fit Jesus' creative contrabutions into a pre-creation timeline.

    Anything less of what John says in 1:3 is pure speculation on when did the beginning begin.

    gave Paul the words to say that Jesus' equality with Yahweh was something we will not be able to understand.

    ??? Where is there such a passage in the Bible?

    International Standard Bible;

    6 In God?s own form existed he, And shared with God equality, Deemed nothing needed grasping.

    Youngs Literal Translation;

    6who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal to God,

    E

  • LittleToe
    LittleToe

    Herk:
    Seeing as you refer back to Col.1, and insist that you have the correct contextual understaning, what do you make of the latter verses (emphasis mine, to help illustrate my current understanding on the passage)?

    Col 1:26-28 "Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints: To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory: Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus:" KJV

  • ellderwho
    ellderwho

    Little Toe,

    One has to reason re: Col.1:16 did Christ create "anew" the Angels?

    Speaking of a mystery what was manna?

    E

  • herk
    herk

    ellderwho,

    Many years ago I had a choice. I could have accepted the writings of brilliant men who wrote commentaries on what the Bible means, or I could treat the Bible as God's letter addressed to me as it is addressed to every person. The trouble with reading commentaries is that there are hundreds of opinions to choose from. Many are Trinitarian, and many are not. Each is persuasive in his own way. But there is great disagreement among scholars, and sometimes scholars contradict their own writings.

    Adam Clarke was a Trinitarian. But I don't think he would be accepted in some Trinitarian circles today. For example, Trinitarians believe that God the Son is eternal just as God the Father and God the Holy Spirit are said to be eternal. But Adam Clarke didn't think so. He wrote:

    But in the above reasons it is demonstrated that the doctrine of the eternal Sonship of Christ is absolutely irreconcilable to reason, and contradictory to itself. ETERNITY is that which has had no beginning, nor stands in any reference to time: SON supposes time, generation, and father; and time also antecedent to such generation: therefore the rational conjunction of these two terms, Son and eternity, is absolutely impossible, as they imply essentially different and opposite ideas. -- Commentary, on Acts 13:33.

    Elsewhere he wrote:

    It is true, that to Jesus the Christ, as he appeared among men, every characteristic of the Divine nature is sometimes attributed, without appearing to make any distinction between the Divine and human natures; but is there any part of the Scriptures in which it is plainly said that the Divine nature of Jesus was the Son of God? Here, I trust, I may be permitted to say, with all due respect for those who differ from me, that the doctrine of the eternal Sonship of Christ is, in my opinion, anti-scriptural, and highly dangerous. This doctrine I reject for the following reasons:-

    1st. I have not been able to find any express declaration in the Scriptures concerning it.

    2dly. If Christ be the Son of God as to his Divine nature, then he cannot be eternal; for son implies a father; and father implies, in reference to son, precedency in time, if not in nature too. Father and son imply the idea of generation; and generation implies a time in which it was effected, and time also antecedent to such generation.

    3dly. If Christ be the Son of God, as to his Divine nature, then the Father is of necessity prior, consequently superior to him.

    4thly. Again, if this Divine nature were begotten of the Father, then it must be in time; i.e. there was a period in which it did not exist, and a period when it began to exist. This destroys the eternity of our blessed Lord, and robs him at once of his Godhead.

    5thly. To say that he was begotten from all eternity, is, in my opinion, absurd; and the phrase eternal Son is a positive self-contradiction. ETERNITY is that which has had no beginning, nor stands in any reference to TIME. SON supposes time, generation, and father; and time also antecedent to such generation. Therefore the conjunction of these two terms, Son and eternity is absolutely impossible, as they imply essentially different and opposite ideas. -- Commentary, on Luke 1:35.

    My point is that Trinitarian scholars just don't agree on what the Trinity means. And they disagree among themselves about a whole lot of other things.

    I'm not suggesting that scholarly commentaries are useless, but I am saying that the Bible itself should have the final word. Some persons, however, become addicted to commentaries, and they prefer what they have to say over statements in the Bible that are quite easy to understand without the need for commentaries that sometimes confuse the issue.

    So, you can accept what Trinitarians say about Eph. 3:19 and Col. 2:9, or you can accept what the Bible itself says. Eph. 3:19 is understandable enough. I'm not going to consume a lot of time by citing text after text, but the NT is clear enough that God's purpose for each of us is that we be patterned after the image of his Son just as the Son is a perfect image of the Father. Or, to put it in the words of Eph. 3:19, "that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God."

    Col. 2:9, 10, basically says the same thing. It tells us that "in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form." Jesus is a perfect example of what God is like. Then the epistle continues, "and you have been given fullness." But it doesn't stop there. Our "fullness" depends upon our submission to Christ: "in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority."

    At any rate, the potential of Christians to be "filled to the measure of all the fullness of God" (Eph. 3:19) should balance the Trinitarian stress on "the fullness of the Deity" in Jesus as a proof of his being God. (Col. 1:19; 2:9, 10)

    Then how would Jn. 1:3 fit into your reference of Christ the new creation of things to come.Heb 1:10

    I take from this that you don't accept that the writer of Hebrews was discussing "the new creation of things to come." I can only tell you what pops out at me as I read the Bible. Hebrews was written with a Jewish audience in mind. Jews did not believe in a Trinity or that any man could fill the role of God, except as was their view of David and others who sat upon "the throne of Yahweh."

    As for John 1:3, I'm convinced from comparing translations that most Bibles have followed the example of the Catholic Douay-Rheims translators and personalized "the word." That was not done by translators before the Douay version. Accept it or not, my view is that the verse is simply saying what other passages say about the Genesis creation. By means of the "word" of God, he spoke creation into existence. (Gen. 1; Ps 33:6, 9; Heb 6:5; 2 Pet 3:5)

    Or Col. 1:16 My point if He(Christ) is before "all things" then Heb 1:10 fits with the above quoted creation verses, without conflicting with creation verses of the OT.

    Here again, Trinitarian commentaries have played havoc with the true meaning of the Scriptures. A careful reading shows that Col. 1:15-17 is not describing the Genesis creation of physical things. I explained this in my previous post. To ascribe the Genesis creation to Jesus flies in the face of everything Paul had taught about the Christian creed as belief in "one God, the Father."

    At somepoint the non-trinitarian has to fit Jesus' creative contrabutions into a pre-creation timeline. Anything less of what John says in 1:3 is pure speculation on when did the beginning begin.

    That is a statement far more dogmatic than any evidence will support. Trinitarians automatically assume that John 1:1-3 is speaking of Jesus, whereas the text simply speaks of "the word." Just as that "word" became a universe, it became a special person when it produced Jesus in the flesh. (John 1:14)

    I think you misunderstood my question about our not being able to grasp how Christ could be equal to God. There is no Bible text that says such a thing. The answer you gave doesn't touch on my question at all.

    I hope the above is helpful.

    herk

  • ellderwho
    ellderwho

    Undisfellowshipped;

    To give credence to the NIV study Bibles' comentaries as Herk has done, is exactly what I have presented merely as an oposing view nothing more nothing less.

    Simply stated a student of the Bible has to use discernment when wading through volumes of comentaries. Hence my coment;

    Granted, this is one mans opinion, in sharp contrast to yours. highlighting mine

    To re hash Col. 1:15-19 is becoming tiresome.

    I can only tell you what pops out at me as I read the Bible.

    Thats your opinion.

    As for John 1:3, I'm convinced from comparing translations that most Bibles have followed the example of the Catholic Douay-Rheims translators and personalized "the word."

    This is also your opinion

    . Accept it or not, my view is that the verse is simply saying what other passages say about the Genesis creation.

    Your opinion again.

    Trinitarian commentaries have played havoc with the true meaning of the Scriptures.

    Still, your opinion.

    A careful reading shows that Col. 1:15-17 is not describing the Genesis creation of physical things.

    A careful reading by yourself equals your opinion.

    Dont get me wrong here. I have my opinion as well were all intitled to one.

    I believe Col.1:15 is figurative 16,17 literal. Heb 1:10 Literal Phil. 2:6 literal.

    E

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    Herk,

    If Heb. 1:10 is speaking of a new creation Heb. 1:2 is not. God has in these last days spoken to us by His Son whom he has appointed heir of all things, "through whom he has made the worlds." Does this not agree with John 1:3 that "all things were made through him and without him nothing was made that was made"? All means all, not all other things as J.W's have inserted in Col. 1:15 Here we see that the Son exists prior to creation, which makes him more than just a creature. The same Son (Word) that was manifest in the flesh was also present at creation. This is the same Son who was in the bosom of the Father before any thing was created Ex nihilo (John 1:14, 18) For God to have made the world through the Son than both Father and Son were present at creation. See also Col. 1:16,17. If God is the source of creation, than the Son (not just a spoken word) is the agent. To imply that the anthropomorphic language of the Old Testament where God is described in human terms as speaking things into being in order to deny the use of an agent (His Son) to create is not supported by the New Testament, whose Jewish authors understood Jesus to be the living Word of God.

  • herk
    herk

    Kenneson,

    I've read the epistle to the Hebrews many times. I just don't see it supporting your view.

    Hebrews 1:1, 2, states: "God, after he spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom also he made the world." It seems clear to me that the Son of God never spoke to humans until the first century, in what the writer of Hebrews calls "these last days." Before "these last days" began, God spoke by the prophets, not by his Son. It should also be noted that God was "in" the prophets, just as we read in the NT that God was "in" Christ.

    I hope we can agree that matters are presented clearly in these verses. According to the writer, the Son of God was not God's messenger to man until the first century A.D. The same book of Hebrews points out that God's word was spoken through angels in OT times. (Heb. 2:2) If the message to Israel was through Jesus before he became a human, the writer of this NT book seems to be unaware of it. Messages were given through prophets and angels, but never was there a hint that the OT message was transmitted through the one who later came to be identified as the Son of God.

    I mention this because the writer to the Hebrews places Jesus in the present and future all through his epistle. His message is about the great Personage who has replaced Moses and who is God's Chief Agent for bringing about new and better things.

    The "world" (aion) in verse 2 does not refer to the earth and the physical universe but rather to the ages or dispensations on the earth. The Greek word translated "world" occurs 13 times in Hebrews, but it is not the usual word (kosmos) translated as "world". Young's Analytical Concordance to the Holy Bible gives the meaning of aion as "age, indefinite time, dispensation."

    Jesus Christ is the chief cornerstone of all ages. (1 Pet. 2:6) He is the Seed promised in Eden. (Gen. 3:15) Abraham looked forward to Christ's day with the eye of faith. (John 8:56; Gal. 3:8) Even the sacrifices of animals under the Law of Moses only had their effectiveness because they pointed to the sacrifice that would be offered once for all time. (Heb. 10:4, 10) The law was a schoolmaster to bring men to Christ. (Gal. 3:24) The world or age of God's making has its meaning and ultimate realization through Christ.

    As I explained to ellderwho, John 1:3 says nothing about Christ. It describes what was accomplished by means of God's spoken "word." Many translations say "him" but the original allows for "it". All translations said "it" before the Catholic Douay translation of the 16th century. Some more recent translations also say "it". And some do not use a capital "W" for "word," just as no capital is used for the same "word" (logos) at Hebrews 6:5.

    If God is the source of creation, than the Son (not just a spoken word) is the agent.

    In view of the following verses, I can't comprehend why persons would say God used an agent in the creation of the world. He specifically says:

    • "I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, stretching out the heavens by myself and spreading out the earth all alone." (Isa. 44:24)
    • "It is I who made the earth, and created man upon it. I stretched out the heavens with my hands, and I ordained all their host." (Isa. 45:12)

    herk

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    Herk,

    I find it strange that angels and prophets are agents of the word of God, yet God "spoke" creation alone. Yet Genesis depicts his " voice" as "walking" in the Garden "speaking" to Adam and Eve without angels and prophets present. Gen. 3:8-18 How can angels precede the Son and yet not be superior? If Jesus is the Son only when he is born a man, than according to Heb. 2:9 he is lower than the angels, not higher.

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