New World Translation and the Greek Text of Westcott and Hort

by Dogpatch 61 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • gumby
    gumby
    The principles are just the same whether you are establishing the words that Homer wrote or those of Paul. You do not have to believe in the Greek gods in order to determine just what Homer wrote. It is a matter of science, not of faith

    Hi Earnest,

    Sorry if I was sounding a little 'prickish'. My dissatisfaction wasn't at you, but rather at the absurdity to me that the book we call Gods word, was as if constucted in a cheap sweat shop. Have you taken a good look at the subject of the bible canon, and how the bible was formed?

    My points in these posts were to show how god has a problem with "protection" of things...(the bible god to be specific as I still believe in a creator)

    Whether Wescott and Hort were faithfull Christians or not, doesn't matter.Yes, I took a cheap shot at the article I copied and pasted without seeing "the rebuttle side", but I was making a point concerning 'confusion' surrounding gods word.

    "King James Only" people, and their opposers, have a problem, because the bible god couldn't keep records, or proof of these records authenticity, safe enough or believable enough, without believers practicing blind faith. You know as well as I, the bible has much reason to be suspect of alot of baloney. How much of the critical view of the bible have you read? What did you think?

    Now...to be nicer....I admire your style in some of your recent posts, such as the one back to Randy W. You show proofs in your arguments and seem to play fair. Your not "one of them" are ya?

    I hope I don't say this then hate your arse later ......................I've done that before

    Thanks for following this.

    Gumby

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    Earnest and Cutlip....I am staying mostly on the sidelines, but I am really enjoying your debate....

  • gumby
    gumby

    So I guess your basically trying to tell me in a nice way you don't love me anymore

    Can we kiss and make up?

    Gumlover

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    Hi Gumby,

    So I guess your basically trying to tell me in a nice way you don't love me anymore

    How can anyone help but love you, rushing in where angels fear to tread. No...I'm just trying to tell you in a nice way that I don't post to JWD much after 3 a.m.

    Have you taken a good look at the subject of the bible canon, and how the bible was formed?...How much of the critical view of the bible have you read? What did you think?

    The questions you raise probably deserve threads of their own as it diverges from this thread, dealing more with biblical criticism than with textual criticism. But to answer your question briefly, I have read a bit about biblical criticism and concluded that the Bible was written as a book of faith and should be read as such. A really good read is The Pentateuch and Book of Joshua Critically Examined, by John Colenso, a mathematician and Anglican Bishop of Natal at the time he wrote it. Textual criticism, on the other hand, is not concerned about who wrote what or even whether it is true, but whether it accurately reflects what was originally written. A rock of truth in a sea of doubt.

    Earnest

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    Hi NWT,

    In discussing Romans 8:1 in my previous post I said :

    [Your] further comment [The New English Bible did not promise to (1) translate W&H or (2) to give a footnote explaining why not] as a result of my comparing the NEB translation of this verse is nonsensical because their translation is based on the W&H Greek text of this verse. That is why I used it to demonstrate the similarity in translation.

    I would just like to elaborate on that statement. The W&H Greek text of Romans 8:1 is :

    Ouden ara nun katakrima tois en Christo Iesou

    In the book The Greek New Testament: Being the Text Translated in The New English Bible (London: Oxford University Press, 1964), by R.V.G.Tasker, he gives the identical Greek text for Romans 8:1. So the comparison with the NWT is reasonable. But while this particular text follows the same Greek text as W&H this is not necessarily true throughout the NEB. In the introduction to his book he explains the policy of the translators (p.vii) :

    The text to be translated will of necessity be eclectic, since no existing text can be taken as sole basis. The translator shall start with a standard text (e.g. Westcott and Hort, Souter, or Nestle); he shall be free to depart from it where he considers it desirable, but every such departure shall be open to challenge by any member of the Panel, and the reading finally adopted shall be determined by the Panel as a whole.

    I mention this to simply make a small comment on what is meant by the Westcott and Hort text. They developed various principles in deciding which manuscripts, or families of manuscripts, were the more reliable and collated the Greek text based on those manuscripts available to them. This is also true of Souter and Nestle mentioned above. But when a Bible is translated it is not W&H or Nestle who wrote the text, they simply collated what was already available. That is why the footnotes on variant readings show the manuscript evidence and do not simply allude to these scholars.

    Earnest

  • NWT@Cutlip.Org
    [email protected]

    [email protected] wrote:

    According to KIT 69, page 9, and NWT *, page 8:

    The Greek text that we have used as the basis of our New World translation is the widely accepted Westcott and Hort text (1881) ? Where we have varied from the reading of the Westcott and Hort text, our footnotes show the basis for our preferred reading .

    Yes, the Watchtower Society does claim that NWT is a translation of W&H ( KIT 85, pages 8-9).

    Earnest replied:

    The ellipsis obscures the rest of the sentence, namely, ?But we have also taken into consideration other texts, including that prepared by D. Eberhard Nestle and that compiled by the Spanish Jesuit scholar Jose Maria Bover and that by the other Jesuit scholar A. Merk?. I thought it was misleading because your entire article stresses that ?The Watchtower Society said they were translating W&H , but they did not? (5 times) but you don?t include the statement in the foreword that other texts were also taken into consideration.

    [email protected] replied:

    First, I?m glad you understood the point. Sometimes repeating a point five times is not enough for the other person to hear it. Second, I think the final sentence implies that W&H is not the only text without spelling out the alternatives. So, it neither obscures nor is misleading. It was simply done to move the flow along more rapidly. However, the fact that you grasp at this straw leads me to think I should restore what is missing and perhaps highlight what I quoted. I have read enough WT material to be aware that when they ellipsis anything they are trying to hide something. So, I don?t blame you for being suspicious. Remember the old, old trinity tract where the quote Hislop and do not even use ellipsis ? they just quote him as if he said what they twisted his words to say. What a hoot! But that is a digression.

    Earnest wrote:

    The answer is clearly explained in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (both 1969 and 1985 editions), p. 5

    ...the translation under each Greek word sets out what the Greek word itself says according to its root meanings...and according to its grammatical form. So in many cases the reading in the English word-for-word interlinear translation is not the same as that found in the right-hand column. This aids us in determining what the Greek text actually, basically says.

    That is the nature of translation. There is not always a word-for-word equivalence as contextual consistency should always have priority over verbal consistency. So there are many cases where the English translation does not reflect a word-for-word repetition of the Greek but that does not indicate a variation from the W&H text. Of the examples you cited, this is true of Romans 8:1, John 14:14 and 2 Corinthians 5:5.

    [email protected] replied:

    Technically, you quoted KIT 69. KIT 85 has some slightly different wording. Also two sentences were added to KIT 85 where you stopped quoting. They may be designed to mitigate criticisms such as mine. Moreover, KIT 69 spells out: ?We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor all through has been to give as literal a translation as possible, ? That way we can best meet the desire of those who are scrupulous for getting, as nearly as possible, word for word, the exact statement of the original? (page 10).

    Were the examples I mentioned (Romans 8:1, John 14:14 and 2 Corinthians 5:5) ?as literal as possible? and ?word for word the exact statement of the original? ? evidently NOT! A ?scrupulous? translator could have translated them more literally ? more word for word. Scrupulous translators have done so!

    Earnest wrote:

    You clearly only copy and pasted part of what you had said. Check your article on this thread and you will see you posted :

    If NWT is a translation of W&H then NWT must say ?seventy-two? as W&H clearly does. If this is one of the places NWT has ?varied from the reading of the Westcott and Hort text? then a footnote should ?show the basis for [the] preferred reading.? And yet, no footnote accompanies the text.

    It is clear as day that you said no footnote accompanies this text without qualification,

    [email protected] replied:

    Look again, Earnest. You are the one who copied and pasted ?part? of what I said. By cutting away the topical sentence of the paragraph, you made it appear to be ?without qualification.? Yet, the sentences just above what you quoted did offer qualification. Here?s the fuller quotation:

    NWT says: ?After these things the Lord designated seventy others . . .? but in KIT 69 and KIT 85 the left-hand column clearly says, ?seventy-two.? If NWT is a translation of W&H then NWT must say ?seventy-two? as W&H clearly does. If this is one of the places NWT has ?varied from the reading of the Westcott and Hort text? then a footnote should ?show the basis for [the] preferred reading.? And yet, no footnote accompanies the text.

    Evidently, I needed to repeat at the end what I said at the beginning so you could keep the subject straight: ?And yet, no footnote accompanies the text ? in KIT 69 and KIT 85.?

    Earnest wrote:

    Romans 8:1: You are expecting a word-for-word equivalent of the word nun?

    [email protected] replied:

    How foolish of me! When I read page 10 of KIT 69 ? ?We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor all through has been to give as literal a translation as possible, ? That way we can best meet the desire of those who are scrupulous for getting, as nearly as possible, word for word, the exact statement of the original? ? I was expecting a word-for-word equivalent ? as literal as possible. How foolish of me! Expecting the Watchtower to do what they promised! Dumb, huh?

    Two beside the points: (1) Nowhere in the Greek does the word ?have? occur, but ?now? does ? why ?translate? what is not present and fail to translate what is present? (2) I?m not positive, but I?m pretty sure, that despite your claim, ? NEB translation ? is based on the W&H Greek text of this verse,? the NEB is not based on W&H, but on a Greek text (much like W&H) developed by them and available in book format. Look for: Tasker, R.V.G. (editor) The Greek New Testament Being the Text Translated in the New English Bible 1961. Oxford University Press, 1964 Hard Cover.

  • NWT@Cutlip.Org
    [email protected]

    Hang in there with me. I posted that last post to the bottom of page 1 -- it didn't hit me to turn the page. Now I see some of the NEB stuff duplicates. I will get the hang of this yet!

    [email protected]

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    Hi NWT, and welcome back.

    The simplicity of TDs post has shamed me into rewriting my verbose post. Let me sum up to date :

    You accept that there is a footnote to Luke 10:1 showing the textual support for both "seventy" and "seventy-two" in NWT*. This footnote is not in KIT69.

    You accept that Romans 8:1, John 14:14 and 2 Corinthians 5:5 are all translations of the W&H Greek text and so no footnote would be expected regarding textual support. You do not consider the translations to be as literal as possible but as that has nothing to do with the underlying Greek text it is irrelevant to this thread.

    The remaining scripture is Matthew 12:47 to which there is a footnote in NWT* as mentioned in my previous post.

    Does that sum it up ?

    Earnest

  • TD
    TD

    Second edition New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures obtained around December of 1951:

    First edition KIT69 obtained (by myself) around October of 1969:

    First edition KIT85 obtained (by myself) in September of 1986

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    TD.....Ahhhhhh, much better! Thanks so much for posting these! :)

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