Pahpa: No where in any New Testament manuscript is the Hebrew name Yahweh (Jehovah, English) used. There are, however, some variations in some places, such as when Revelation uses Alelluia (meaning praise Yah). However, Jesus name (Yeshua) means "Yahweh is Salvation." The notion that when he quoted Hebrew scripture that contained the name Yahweh that he must has used the name is one possible support. Another possible support is found in John Chapter 17, where Jesus, in prayer, pointedly stated that he made his Father's name known to his disciples. We need to also consider that the New Testament shows that all name recognition has been transferred to the Son. Plus we have 2,000-years of Christian tradition focusing on Jesus name, and not Yahweh or Jehovah. Therefore, a better meaning of Jesus comments in John 17 may suggest the "name" he made known was in regards to God's reputation, or good name as we might call it, and not some formal pronounciation of a label we would call Yahweh or Jehovah.
Mad: You stated the following:
Due to the Jews believing the name too holy to be pronounced (especially since they knew they'd be using it in VAIN), ...
Jesus would not have submitted to such a tradition were it all that important to pronounce the Divine Name. But this superstition of the Jews that you reference is really irrelevant to the issue.
"... and also the the False Prophets that started swaying the early Christians ..."
Irrelevant. While there were some false prophets and heretics around, the Church Fathers were quite effective at combatting them. Also, Jesus promised that he would be with the Church all days up to the end of the world, and likewise he promised that the Holy Spirit would be there to teach and guide the Church. So to assume that somehow false prophets and Jewish superstition held sway over the Church is in effect calling Jesus Christ a liar.
" ... - and the fact that the original writings are long gone (only copies from later centuries- a few fragments believed to be close to the first century), we can't state a a FACT Jesus did or didn't."
This is also not a logical conclusion. The fragments, of which there are many thousands, some of which date back to the 2nd century, there is only minor variations in the copying. It makes no sense that somehow by the end of the first century all copyists around the then known world, from Jerusalem, to Alexandria, Egypt, to Spain, and Rome would have simultaneously conspired to eliminate the name Yahweh or Jehovah from the New Testament. If it were ever used it would have appeared in some of the texts. Jesus may well have used the name Yahweh, but it was not made important to the Christians, because the name Jesus was given above every name to humans as the name by which we must get saved.
However, knowing Christ, and the rest of the scriptures answers it for me- of course! No if Jesus were God, as the Catholic Dogma reigns in the minds of most church-goers, than maybe he didn't....However, Jesus HAS and SERVES a God- His "God & Father"!
Again, this vague reference to the Trinity doctrine is irrelevant to whether Jesus used the name Yahweh. While Jesus was a human he functioned in every respect as a human and his human nature was subordinated to the Father. He was not exerting his own Godship at that time. Paul said in Phillipians that Jesus took on a slave's form when he became human. So it would make sense that he would refer to the Father as his God. But this discussion needs a separate thread to properly develop.
Finally, you tell Dogpatch (Randy) that he should just summarize the informaton rather than quoting various scholars extensively. Randy made the quotes out of intellectual honesty so that we can see exactly what experts have said. This is academically the correct thing to do. Perhaps he oculd have opened with an abstract or executive summary, but in this type of very short post, what he did was just fine.
Jim Whitney