Narkissos
I don't think there is any doubt that Paul was making reference to the specific Jews who were persecuting Jewish Christians in Judea. (1 Thess. 2:14) But I doubt that it was an "anti-semitic" prejudice against all Jews since Paul, himself, was a Jew as were the majority of those in the Judean congregations. Likewise, I am sure that John understood the same situation when he referred to the "Jews" who were opposers and persecutors of Jesus and his disciples. John speaks favorably of some Jews in the gospel account. He makes the distinction between those Jews who responded to the message and to those who became active opposers to it. He certainly wasn't painting the Jews "with a broad brush" of anti-semitic hatred.
Greendawn
Do you have the specific reference to that letter? I would be interested in its contents to see if it was based on fact or opinion. Much of Russell's Masonic connection has been based upon speculation and inference rather than solid facts.
Zico
The information contained in John 20:28 has to be taken into consideration with the context of John's gospel. For example, John 20:17 records Jesus' words "I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." And John summerizes his account about Jesus by saying "But these are written that yhou may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name." (20:31) There seems little ambiguity to these statements.