@Earnest
Your argument suggests that you agree that John 1:1c should be understood qualitatively, conveying the divine nature of the Logos. However, the rendering "the Word was a god" in the New World Translation (NWT) fails to reflect the qualitative essence of the Greek text. The qualitative sense does not imply that the Word is a lesser god but that the Word shares fully in the divine nature.
In Greek, "theos" without the article emphasizes this divine quality, not multiplicity within the divine realm. The traditional rendering, "the Word was God," reflects this qualitative distinction properly without introducing monalatristic henotheism or creating ambiguity. It emphasizes that the Logos is fully divine without confusing the Logos with the Father. The traditional rendering is not definite, it would be "the Word was *the God", but as far as I know, no one has ever translated it that way.
The NWT’s translation, however, risks misunderstanding by implying that the Word is a separate, lesser deity, which is inconsistent with the monotheistic theology of John’s Gospel and the broader context of Scripture. The Coptic translation similarly supports the qualitative sense, emphasizing the fully divine nature of the Logos, not monalatristic henotheism or a separate inferior/secondary/lesser deity. Thus, the rendering "the Word was God" remains theologically and grammatically superior.
@Wonderment
You suggest that scholars are inherently biased and push religious agendas. However, the scholarly process is generally rooted in critical analysis, peer review, and rigorous linguistic and historical study. This does not mean that scholars are infallible, but it does suggest that conclusions are drawn from a substantial body of evidence, not just personal agendas. It is also important to note that while differing perspectives exist, relying on solid linguistic evidence, as seen in works by scholars like Harner and Colwell, remains crucial.
You dismiss Colwell’s rule as flawed, calling it "a theory" that should be discarded. This is a gross oversimplification. Colwell’s rule is not universally dismissed by scholars but has, rather, been carefully analyzed and applied, with its principles still holding validity in many grammatical discussions. The key to understanding Colwell’s rule is recognizing its relevance to the construction of Greek sentences like John 1:1. While it is true that Colwell did not emphasize qualitative nouns in his initial work, subsequent scholars like Harner have explored this dimension, suggesting that the word "theos" in John 1:1c emphasizes the nature of divinity, not an indefinite entity. Colwell’s rule highlights how the word "theos" should be interpreted in its specific context as definite or qualitative rather than indefinite.
You try to make an argument by comparing the use of the article in John 4:19 and other verses, asserting that Greek drops the article to denote qualitativeness. However, Greek grammatical constructions are nuanced and context-dependent. John 1:1’s construction, with an anarthrous "theos" in the predicate nominative position, does not automatically lead to the indefinite reading “a god.” Rather, it points to a qualitative understanding that describes the nature of the Word as sharing in divinity.
Comparisons with passages like John 4:19 are misleading. In the example of the Samaritan woman recognizing Jesus as "a prophet," she is making a situational observation, whereas John 1:1c is a theological statement about the eternal nature of the Word. The parallel does not hold because the contexts and implications of the two passages are fundamentally different.
You suggest that qualitative and indefinite nouns often overlap and that the Greek construction of John 1:1 could plausibly be translated as "a god." This is a misunderstanding of the linguistic principles at work. Qualitative nouns describe the essence or nature of something, while indefinite nouns introduce one among a category. Harner and other scholars argue that "theos" in John 1:1c is qualitative, describing the Word’s nature as fully divine. This is distinct from an indefinite reading, which would suggest a lesser or different kind of separate divine being, contrary to John’s intention.
The necessity of indefinite article depends on the context and linguistic features. For example, in a Greek mythological work, "Zeus en theos" should be translated as "Zeus was a god", since the context of the work implies that Zeus is one of the several Olympian gods. However, the Gospel of John is a work with a monotheistic framework, there are no more deities here, only one. So Logos can only be "theos" if He is the same God with "the God". Linguistic peculiarities are also important, for example, if you want to say that you are a black person in English, you don't say "I am *a Black", but simply "I am Black". However, in Spanish "soy negro" would mean that you are a person named "Negro", so you say "soy un negro". Or in English we say "I am a lawyer" with an indefinite article, but in German we say the same thing without an indefinite article: "Ich bin Rechtsanwalt."
You have not addressed the point regarding nomina sacra, where sacred names, including "God," were consistently abbreviated in early manuscripts out of reverence. This practice applies equally to references to the Father and to the Son, supporting the understanding that the early Christians saw the Son as sharing fully in divine status. This diminishes the argument that early Christians viewed Jesus as merely "a god."
You attempt to dismiss the eternal nature of the Word by claiming that the verb "was" (ἦν) in John 1:1 does not necessarily indicate eternal preexistence. However, in the context of the prologue of John, the use of ἦν, especially in conjunction with "in the beginning" (Ἐν ἀρχῇ), strongly suggests an eternal existence. The contrast between the imperfect tense "ἦν" (was) and the aorist "ἐγένετο" (came into being) used in reference to creation further emphasizes the Word's eternal nature. Thus, the Word is not merely present at the beginning but has existed eternally.
FYI: A Study of John 1:1a, b: A Defense of the Deity of Christ Apart from the Argument of 1:1c.
... and: John 1:1a
Your review mentions Wallace's “individualism” and his “tendency to redefine subjects and terminology.” However, this should be seen as Wallace striving to break down old and often rigid definitions. His approach adds precision to understanding, although some readers may find it complex. Wallace’s individualism can sometimes be beneficial, as it pushes scholarly discourse to advance rather than stay stagnant. While there are disagreements, Wallace’s contributions cannot be dismissed as "odd conclusions."A significant issue addressed is Wallace's interpretation of the article, particularly in passages like John 1:1. Wallace argues for a qualitative interpretation of the Greek term "theos" in John 1:1c, contending that it describes the Word as having the nature of God, rather than merely being “a god.” This qualitative approach emphasizes the divine nature of the Logos without introducing monalatristic henotheism or diminishing the Word's divinity. Critics of Wallace, such as JWs, may object to this, preferring an indefinite article ("a god"), but Wallace’s interpretation aligns with mainstream Christian theology and addresses the nuances of Koine Greek more faithfully.
Your review accuses Wallace of dishonesty, particularly in his treatment of Colwell’s Rule and his evangelical leanings. It claims that Wallace inconsistently applies the rule and accuses him of theological bias. However, it’s important to note that Wallace’s positions are well-supported by his analysis of Greek syntax and the broader context of Scripture. While he acknowledges the misuse of Colwell’s Rule by others, his conclusions about John 1:1 are not based on theological bias alone but on a careful linguistic analysis that remains consistent with mainstream Trinitarian scholarship.
The criticism that Wallace inconsistently renders John 1:1c as "God" rather than "a god" is grounded in the theological implication of the term. Wallace maintains that "theos" in John 1:1c is qualitative, indicating the Logos shares in the full divine essence. JWs argue for an indefinite rendering, but Wallace correctly notes that such a translation introduces a henotheistic nuance foreign to John’s intent and the early Christian understanding of Jesus as fully divine.
To sum up, the interpretation of John 1:1c as "the Word was God" is supported by the qualitative understanding of "theos" in Greek, affirmed by numerous scholars, and aligns with the broader theological context of John's Gospel. Attempts to translate this passage as "a god" introduce unnecessary theological confusion, are inconsistent with early Christian practices, and are not supported by the grammatical evidence.