Even though Luke attempts to protract the span of time from the "great distress in the land and wrath against this people" and the arrival of the Son of Man, even that writer linked the two together. There is no way to honestly avoid that conclusion. Regardless whether the writers or redactors had 70CE or 135CE in mind, they still understood the events of their life would trigger/precipitate the Son of Man's coming.
Luke defines it as he understood Matt and Mark:
There will be great distress in the land and wrath against this people.
So we can dispense with the idea that this expression has future meaning.
Revelation also has such an expectation. Some scholars have concluded the text was originally a Jewish apocalypse, or a collection of them, that was reworked, extensively interpolated by a Christian about 50 years later.
The 'tribulation' Christians were having 'gone through' so as to be standing in the temple of God, is clearly describing martyrdom, likely under the reigns of Nero and/or Trajan. (Rev 7)
It can be said that similar to the Gospels, the Christain writer here anticipated divine intervention before long and that he and his living contemporaries would have a protective 'sealing' when God unleashes his vengeance.
In short, while both the Gospels and Revelation share a recurring idea (oppression and distress upon the righteous precipitating divine action), neither happened as hoped. And neither were referring to a time thousands of years later.