scholar...
Remember, you are the one making the claim that there is a "special" connection between the two.. I am just questioning your reasoning. Nothing more. You are the one required to prove your point, as I have no point to prove.
I have already stated that I do not have access to the work in particular.
Earlier in this thread, Gamaliel posted what appears to be the relevant passage from the book, and it clearly showed that the gentile times would occur within the seven times... that was the extent of the connection, that one would occur during the other.
Does that mean that we are to "associate mentally" these two times so as to make them equals? Are these two times to be considered the same? Is that the connection you want out of them? That is the connection that the WTBS infers in thier writings.
Is this the relevant passage to which you refer? Was Brown any more, or less, inspired than the WTBS writers? Why should we put any additional weight to this writing? Furthermore, you have stated that other's made a mistake when referencing the WTBS reference to this writing, and that proved them to be "un-scholarly". Not only have your "specific reasons" been shot down, but you have proved yourself to be very "un-scholarly" in your approach.
When questioned, you fall back on non sequitor and ad hominum attacks instead of explaining your position.
Wether or not the two times are connected is, technically, irrelevant at this point. You are attempting to discredit individuals based on interpetations of thier writings, which is in turn interpeting others writings. You pick meaning of words so as to make them so vague, while ignoring the obviousness of the writers intent.
Who's more correct when talking about Brown's connection of the two times? The WTBS or others? At this point, I say who cares... interpeting a dead mans interpetation of a passage in the bible seems like a collosal waste of time to me.
In short, scholar, you are unable to deal with facts.
Have a pleasant day.