scholar,
OK. I don't have the book, so are you saying that on page 208 that J. A. Brown says something different from what he stated earlier on page 35, 48, 60, 105 and 170?
I have to assume the quotes that Alan made from those other pages are correct, since you didn't challenge them.
The Proclaimer's book gives me the impression that Brown equated them, but you admitted before that Brown never did, and that the Society never said he did. I haven't yet figured out in what sense they are associated. Apparently the definitions from AlanF's references are:
The "Seven Times" are 2520 years from 604 BC to 1917. (Nebuchadnezzar to 1917)
The "Gentile Times" are 1260 years from 622 AD to 1844. (Mohammed to 1844)
Now all I have left to do is find out how Brown "associated" the Seven Times with the Gentile Times. Am I right so far?
Now you do say there is more information on page 208. I am interested in what it says.
According to Brown the Gentile Times are the duration of Mohammedan power. Is this correct?
The times of the Gentiles then are the duration of the Mohammedan power; and when the period of that tyranny is accomplished, Jerusalem will be no longer trodden down of the Gentiles. [Vol. 1, p. 35]
They are 42 months or 1260 days, turned into 1260 lunar years which are The Gentile times are connected with Revelation and are forty two months of years, or 1260 years long, and they are lunar years, or 1222 solar years: 1260x(12x29.5) = 1222x(365), correct? [446,040 = 446,030]
the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled;? and their times are defined to be 1260 years, or ?forty and two months.? [Vol. 1, p. 105]
...are to be reckoned twelve hundred and sixty Mohameddan years, or 1222 solar years, which end April, 1844. [Vol. 1, p. 60]
The closest "association" I've seen so far is that although the two time periods are distinct, that they can both be worked into a larger chronology (by adding some extra years from Daniel's 1290/1335 day periods) that can ultimately both reach to 1917.
both these positions serve mutually to confirm and illustrate each other. [Vol. 2, p. 135]
But this exactly like JCanon saying that the 490 years of Daniel's 70 weeks of years are "associated" with the 2520 years because the beginning of the 490 is at the decree Cyrus decree and that although the 2520 years doesn't begin with the decree of Cyrus, there is another period of 70 years mentioned in Daniel/Jeremiah that takes us back to 70 years before the decree of Cyrus.
That association (and Brown's) would be a sham because the focus is on how even though they don't start on the same date or end on the same date (and are discovered in mutually exclusive time prophecies), they both can be used to support a "Cyrus decree" date in one case and a "1917" date in the other.
So I need to know what is different on page 208 (which volume?) that changes that focus.
Thanks.
Gamaliel