Is this too harsh??
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Watchtower Bible & Tract Society
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Dear Brothers,
This is a short letter in regards to a few questions that I am unable to get straight answers on from any of the local elders or Society publications.
Firstly, this is in regards to two statements in the Great Crowd article in the Watchtower of August 15 1980 (Page 15). My questions have to do with points 2 and 3 in the summary chart on page 15. (I’ll reprint the summary points)
(Note: I’m quite aware of the meaning of both “naos” and “hieron” set forth in various Bible dictionaries. (See also Watchtower August 15 1960 Page 493 and “Then Is Finished The Mystery Of God” Page 260). In English both these two words (“naos” and “hieron”) are translated as “temple” the majority of the time.)
* It was the entire temple (naos) that was destroyed as judgement from God.
Going to the accounts at Matthew 24:1-2; Mark 13:1-3; Luke 21:5-6 where Jesus prophesied about the destruction of the temple, going to the Kingdom Interlinear the Greek word that is rendered “temple” in English in these verses is not “naos” but is “hieron”. Am I missing something here?
* It was from the courts of the outer temple (naos) that Jesus drove the moneychangers. (See also statement in paragraph 4 of the article.)
Checking the accounts at Matthew 21:12 (compare verses 14, 15, 23); Mark 11:15-16 (compare verses 11, 27); Luke 19:45 (compare verse 47); John 2:14-15 in the Interlinear reveals that the word for temple used is “hieron” not “naos”.
The problem I am having is that in those two points it says that the Greek word “naos” appears in those biblical accounts, yet when you look up the verses in the Kingdom Interlinear the word used is “hieron”.
Is there any sane reason for saying that this Greek word appears (“naos”) yet when you look up the Scripture’s in the Interlinear another Greek word appears and that is “hieron”? I desperately need an answer on this matter as I am currently doing a Greek language course.
Letter to Society page 2 continued
Secondly, Has the Society changed (or going to change) its interpretation of the 70 year prophecy? In the Isaiah book Volume 1 pages 253-4 paragraphs 21 and 22, the writer of the paragraph(s) refers to the 70 years as “the period of Babylonia’s greatest domination” and also says that “at the end of the 70 years, that domination will crumble” when “the Babylonian empire falls in 539BCE”. Am I reading into the paragraph(s) too much? The way I read it is that the Society now makes the 70 years finish at 539BCE not 537BCE.
(Note: The Society has always said that the 70 years referred to in Jeremiah, Isaiah, Daniel, 2 Chronicles and Zechariah is one and the same thing.)
Strangely enough, going back 70 years from 539BCE (not 537BCE) we come to 609BCE which according to secular historical documents the battle of Harran occurred which a large number of historian’s regard as the final fall of the previous world empire of Assyria. This battle happened 3 years after the fall of Nineveh when the army of Assyria regrouped (with help from Egyptian Pharaoh Necho) to battle again with the Babylonians. King Josiah was killed when he tried to stop Pharaoh Necho from going to that battle.
As a side point, approximately 95% of Bible translations that I’ve got my hands on have either “70 years for Babylon” or “Babylon’s 70 years” at Jeremiah 29:10 (As opposed to “at Babylon” in the New World Translation and King James Version.)
Lastly, what is the literature/magazine arrangement for disfellowshipped or disassociated persons who still want to receive literature/mags? Is it Society policy for them not to receive literature/mags? There is a congregation in Adelaide that doesn’t allow DF’d/DA’d persons to receive literature/mags (they can only get mags if there is excess and they can’t order literature either) Is that Society policy?(note: i'm talking about myself here)
I like to thank you for taking the time to answer my questions and I wish you personally and the Society well for the future.
Thanks,
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What do you reckon?
From AK
